Some christian churches preach sexual abstinence before marriage. To
my knowledge without real references existing in the bible. Also there
is little known about Jesus as as teen or twen.

Looking forward to your answer!

Best wishes 

Raus

Hi thorstenrauser~

Actually, the Bible is fairly specific about the idea that people
should remain abstinent before marriage. The word "fornication," so
oft used in translations of the Bible, literally means "voluntary
sexual intercourse between an unmarried woman and a man, especially an
unmarried man." (Webster's New Universal Unabridged Dictionary, Dorset
& Baber, 1979.) For an online dictionary definition, try
Merrium-Webster at http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary

Here are a few examples of what the Bible says about fornication (New
American Standard Version). In 1 Corinthians 6:9-10, the Bible states
"Or do you not know that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom
of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, not
adulterers....shall inherit the kingdom of God."Hebrews 13:4 states
"Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed be
undefiled; for fornicators and adulterers God will judge." Acts 15:29
says "...that you abstain from things sacrificed =to idols and from
blood...and from fornication..."  In Matthew 15: 19, Jesus says "For
out of the heart come evil thoughts, murders, adulteries,
fornications, thefts, false witness, slanders."

In addition, as you read the Old Testament, it becomes evident that
sex and marriage went hand-in-hand...to have sex outside of marriage
was considered a sin.
An example: In Israel, the law states that if a man has sex with a
woman, he *must* marry her (Deuteronomy 22:28:29). Jesus' comments in
Matthew 5:27-30 follow up on this. He said: "I tell you that anyone
who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her
in his heart." Notice that he said *anyone,* not just a married
person.

Later, Paul wrote: "Now to the unmarried and the widows I say: It is
good for them to stay unmarried, as I am. But if they cannot control
themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn
with passion." (1 Corinthians 7:8-9) This does not specifically say
that premarital sex is bad--but it *does* say that the desire for
premarital sex is a bad thing. The Christian community concludes that
if the desire for premarital sex is a sin, then the act itself must
also be.

1 Corinthians 7:1-2 states: "Now concerning the things of which you
wrote to me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.  Nevertheless,
because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let
each woman have her own husband." The Greek word for "touch" here
means "to fasten one self" or "to kindle a fire."

In 1 Corinthians 6:16, Paul writes: "Or do you not know that he who is
joined to a harlot is one body with her? For 'the two,' He says,
'shall become one flesh.'" This is based upon the words of Jesus in
the Gospels. In Matthew 19:4-6, Jesus is quoted: "'Haven't you read,'
he replied, 'that at the beginning the Creator made them male and
female, and said 'For this reason a man will leave his father and
mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh?'
So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore, what God has joined
together, let man not separate."

Therefore, sex makes men and women "one" spiritually. In other words,
if a man and woman have sex, they are married in the eyes of God.
Therefore, if they have multiple sexual partners, they commit
adultery--something that is clearly prohibited throughout the Old and
New Testaments (examples:

So, was Jesus a virgin? Since Jesus said "Do not think that I have
come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish
them but to fulfill them," (Matthew 5:17) it is clear he upheld the
Old Testament law and it's teachings. Therefore, he would have avoided
sexual immorality--including fornication. (He also speaks against
fornication in the New Testament, as already noted.) Since Christians
believe Jesus was God and was tempted but didn't yield to that
temptation (see Matthew 4), then he could not have yielded to the
temptation to have sex outside of marriage. Although we don't know
much about Jesus as a teenager, we do know that even in his early
youth, he was draw to spiritual matters, and was careful about Old
Testament law (see Luke 2:41-51 as an example). And the Bible never
gives any indication whatsoever that Jesus was ever married.


For an interesting site on the Bible and sexual abstinence, visit:
http://members.aol.com/lntift/ej/scripture.html

Keywords Used: 
bible abstinence
://www.google.com/search?hl=en&lr=&ie=ISO-8859-1&q=bible+abstinence&btnG=Google+Search
	
I hope this helps!
kriswrite

There is a large contingent of theologians who believe Jesus was
married and had children.  Though reference to this does not directly
appear in the Christian New Testament, speculation is that the wedding
feast at which Jesus allegedly turned water to wine was his own
marriage celebration and that his bride was Miryia of Magdelene,
a.k.a. Mary Magdelene.  Theologians state that the mother of Jesus
would never have spoken so abruptly to him unless the feast was his
own, where he would have been responsible for the merriment of the
guests.

Because Mary Magdelene is referenced numerous times in the Christian
bible, especially at the last supper, many theologians suspect that
she was the wife of Jesus and that certain Roman Catholic men of the
Nicene Council simply removed (and possibly destroyed) all known
references to this when compiling the scriptures known as the
Christian bible.

If you want further information in this area, see the Google search
results at ://www.google.com/search?hl=en&ie=ISO-8859-1&q=mary+magdelene+wife+of+jesus
and also read about the Council of Nicene from the search results at
://www.google.com/search?hl=en&lr=&ie=ISO-8859-1&q=council+of+nicene

Also, if you wish to read the speculation on the "missing" years of
Jesus, see the Google search results at
://www.google.com/search?hl=en&lr=&ie=ISO-8859-1&q=jesus+missing+years

Journalist~

That's an interesting theory...but there isn't any real proof to back
it up. I'm not sure why some groups are uncomfortable with the idea
that Jesus was never married...It's an interesting bit of psychology!

kriswrite

I would say there is real proof of very little that happened 1000
years ago or more. Too many people have had the oportunity to edit
history, and some edited very skillfully. Also common is fiction that
pretends to be fact. What happened yesterday is even subject to
reasonable doubt.  Neil

Since Jesus (Heb. Yeshua) was a Torah observant Jew and, indeed, is
even referred to as "Rabbi" by his disciples (John 1:38), it is quite
possible that he was married, for had he remained celibate, he would
have been violating the mitzvah (commandment) "Be fruitful and
multiply" (Gen. 1:28). It doesn't make sense to me that Jesus would
say in Matthew 5:17, "Think not that I am come to abolish the law
[Torah she-bi-khtav], or the prophets [Nevi'im]: I am not come to
destroy, but to fulfil" (K.J.V.), but yet fail to fulfil his
obligation as a Torah observant Jew to marry and propagate the human
species, as commanded in Genesis.

Judaism regards the taking of a wife as an important precept, binding
on every man. Even a man who is no longer capable of fathering
children is urged to avoid the celibate life. In Jesus's time, an
unmarried man would have only become a complete human being when he
had married. This was based primarily on Genesis 2:24 which says,
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall
cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh" (K.J.V.). For this
reason, the Tannaim or ancient Jewish sages taught that "he who has no
wife cannot be called a man."

I'm convinced that Jesus was married and, as journalist-ga points out,
it is highly possible that his wife was none other than Mary Magdelene
or Mary of Magdala. Ancient Gnostic texts, such as The Gospel of Mary
(originally written in Greek some time in the second century C.E.),
portray Mary as Jesus's beloved, possessed of knowledge (gnosis) and
teaching superior to that of the public apostolic tradition. In the
Gospel of Mary, Peter says to Mary, "Sister, we know that the Savior
loved you more than the rest of women. Tell us the words of the Savior
which you remember - which you know (but) we do not, nor have we heard
them."

As for Paul, since he never ceased being a Pharisee (Acts 23:6) and
therefore "shomer mitzvot" (Torah observant), he was quite possibly
married. My own personal opinion is that he was and that the passage
in 1 Corinthians stating that he was unmarried is nothing more than an
interpolation. Biblical scholars have known for some time that
spurious material has been inserted into a number of passages in both
the Old Testament and the New Testament. In the Gospel of Mark, for
example, the final 11 verses of the last chapter are an interpolation,
and the same is true for John 7:53; 8:1-11. This is proven by the fact
that these verses do not exist in the most important uncial Gr. MSS.
of the New Testament: codices Vaticanus (B) and Sinaiticus, both of
which date to the 4th cent. C.E.

At any rate, we will probably never know for sure whether or not Jesus
and Paul were celibate or whether they were married, though I feel the
textual evidence favors the latter.

Namaste,
sian-ga

Yes he was. When you read the whole Bible as a whole, and match up all
the scriptures, you will find a "Theme". It is God giving us
instructions on how we are to behave to enter, as the Bible puts it,
the " Kingdom of God" It is not heaven, as that spiritual place is
already occupied with "myriads" of angels, God`s heavenly sons. Jesus`
spiritual life in heaven is plainly explained at Proverbs 8, verses 22
to 30. Proverbs was written by King Solomon, Agur and Lemuel in
Jerusalem in 716 b.c.e. under inspiration directly from God. verse 27
says " When He prepared the heavens, I was there". And verse 30 " Then
 came to be beside HIM as a master worker. Jesus was actually involved
in the creation. He was a perfect Son of God, God`s very first
creation. Jesus came to earth in a man`s body, via his mother Mary, to
teach us what God requires of us to enter His " Kingdom of God". This
is not heaven as that spiritual place is already occupied with
"myriads" of God`s other spiritual sons, the angels. It was essential
that Jesus remain "perfect" from his birth to his death, to fulfil the
prophecies throughout the Bible. The Bible clearly regards sexual
relations as being a "sinful" weakness of humans.

Jesus was not a Rabbi. The disciples called him "teacher," because he
was their spritual teacher. There is no historical evidence that Jesus
ever had formal rabbinical training.

It is *possible* that Jesus was married, although there is no
historical evidence for this, really. But even if he *was*
married...so what? It really has nothing to do with his claim to
Diety, or with his teachings.

Kriswrite

As God`s son, Jesus was perfect, and to fulfil all the prophecies
about him , mentioned in the Bible, It would be necessary for him to
remain a virgin and perfect. Galations 5;19 states, Now the works of
the flesh are manifest, they are fornicationm, uncleanness, loose
conduct etc. etc. Sexual relations whether in the marriage arrangement
is still fornication. To remain perfect to comply with God`s purpose,
Jesus would not have married, or even contemplated it. The end od
verse 21 states that those who practice such things will not inherit
God`s Kingdom. All men since Adam have been born sinners and it is for
these ones [us] that Jesus was put to death. And at Hebrews 9;24.. "
For Christ entered, not into a holy place made with hands, which is a
copy of the reality, but into heaven itself, now to appear before the
person of God..for us.

Sex within marriage is *not* in any way fornication, by any
definition, modern or ancient.

pugwashjw--You are correct in saying Jesus was involved in the
creation.  In fact, He was the Creator (see John 1:3 and elsewhere). 
However, He was not, "God's very first creation."  Jesus was God in
the flesh.  He was not a created being.

Destroy, Fulfill?  Jesus was a complete human being even though he was
not married.  Please read the text at the following link to understand
more of what was meant when Jesus said he came to "fulfil".

http://www.newadvent.org/summa/210702.htm

The above link is in response to sian-ga on 12 Nov 2002 12:28 PST, who wrote:
"Since Jesus (Heb. Yeshua) was a Torah observant Jew and, indeed, is
even referred to as "Rabbi" by his disciples (John 1:38), it is quite
possible that he was married, for had he remained celibate, he would
have been violating the mitzvah (commandment) "Be fruitful and
multiply" (Gen. 1:28). It doesn't make sense to me that Jesus would
say in Matthew 5:17, "Think not that I am come to abolish the law
[Torah she-bi-khtav], or the prophets [Nevi'im]: I am not come to
destroy, but to fulfil" (K.J.V.), but yet fail to fulfil his
obligation as a Torah observant Jew to marry and propagate the human
species, as commanded in Genesis. ... In Jesus's time, an
unmarried man would have only become a complete human being when he
had married."