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Subject:
the oblative tense in the Greek,or Ancient Greek, language
Category: Reference, Education and News > General Reference Asked by: droveoni75in-ga List Price: $5.04 |
Posted:
21 Nov 2002 00:13 PST
Expires: 21 Dec 2002 00:13 PST Question ID: 111809 |
What is and/or was the Oblative case and/or tense in the Greek and/or Ancient Greek language? How can I learn more about the oblative? | |
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Subject:
Re: the oblative tense in the Greek,or Ancient Greek, language
Answered By: hlabadie-ga on 21 Nov 2002 15:46 PST Rated: |
You mean oblique, rather than oblative. Oblique forms are those inflected forms other than the most fundamental case or tense. Nouns in cases other than the Nominative or Vocative, which are identical, are in an oblique case. Verbs that are in a form other than the present indicative are oblique. The original classification was Aristotle's, but later grammarians restricted the usage to nouns. See the Oxford English Dictionary under CASE, 9 Grammar. Definition of oblique cases in Greek: http://www.ntgreek.net/lesson13.htm In Latin: http://www.hhhh.org/perseant/libellus/aides/allgre/allgre.338.html http://www.hhhh.org/perseant/libellus/aides/allgre/allgre.35.html#g The *ablative* case is a catch-all in Latin, but not in Greek, which has only Nominative, Genitive, Dative, Accusative, and Vocative. Genitive, Dative, and Accusative are oblique cases in Greek. hlabadie-ga |
droveoni75in-ga
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It was a great answer, but I prefer to call it a "one-star", just because I don't like more than one star. The last part of the answer was the best part of the answer. My tip is for TEZ |
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Subject:
Re: the oblative tense in the Greek,or Ancient Greek, language
From: tez-ga on 21 Nov 2002 16:12 PST |
Hello droveoni75in, You're definitely looking for a case, not a tense. And I think I have found an online text which can give you the further information you need: _Learning Biblical Koine Greek_ http://cranfordville.com/classes/gkgrm00.html In modern English it is called the ablative case, not the oblative. (However, you may find it written as "oblative" in older English variants, most famously in Joyce's _Finnegan's Wake_: http://www.trentu.ca/jjoyce/fw-268.htm) The ablative case is associated with sources of movement/moving away (I came back FROM SCHOOL). The ablative exists as an independent case in Latin, but Ancient Greek lost the ablative (along with the locative and instrumental) as a fully independent case, its functions being absorbed by the dative and genitive cases. Nevertheless, teachers of Greek sometimes describe the case of a noun as 'ablative' to identify that the noun is a source of movement. Finally, the "ablative absolute" is a Latin construction also commonly found in Ancient Greek, where it is called the "genitive absolute". Students of both languages sometimes call it the ablative absolute in the context of Ancient Greek, and even linguists do this occasionally (e.g., Sluiter, I., 2000. 'Seven Grammarians on the Ablative Absolute', Historiographia Linguistica 27.2/3, 381-416.). Further resources: A good history of case development in various Indo-European languages, including Latin and Ancient Greek: http://www.ling.upenn.edu/~beatrice/syntax-text/550/html/ch6.html An interesting, informal contrast between the 8-case and 5-case systems of describing Ancient Greek: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test-archives/html4/1999-12/34343.html An online bibliography of Ancient Greek, which includes the Sluiter article: http://www.let.uu.nl/hist/goac/bgl/ A page devoted to the genitive absolute, and why it is common in Greek: http://www.latin-uk-online.com/heuix/genitiveabsolute.html Regards, tez-ga |
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