Given that u=f(x,y) and v=g(x,y), prove that there exists a 
functional relationship between u and v in the form (u,v) = 0 if and 
only if the Jacobian d(u,v)/d(x,y) is identically zero.

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Clarification of Question by roadapples-ga on 07 Dec 2002 23:57 PST

Not sure the name of it, but the symbol O with a / through it goes in
front of the (u,v) = 0

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Request for Question Clarification by livioflores-ga on 08 Dec 2002 00:34 PST

Hi again roadapples!!
The proof of this proposition is in the following page:
http://groups.google.com/groups?q=+jacobian+%22functional+relationship+%22&hl=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&selm=3DF2C197.766B9792%40attbi.com&rnum=3

Please take a look and tell if you accpt it as the answer. Look for
the paragraph 2 c).
Thank you

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Clarification of Question by roadapples-ga on 08 Dec 2002 00:41 PST

I just found that myself. Thanks for all of your help! It is much appreciated!