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Subject:
vector algebra
Category: Science > Math Asked by: madukar-ga List Price: $2.00 |
Posted:
15 Jan 2003 14:03 PST
Expires: 14 Feb 2003 14:03 PST Question ID: 143175 |
are the functions 1+x,1-x,1+x+xsquare linearly independent or linearly dependent? why? |
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Subject:
Re: vector algebra
Answered By: calebu2-ga on 15 Jan 2003 14:15 PST Rated: |
From mathworld.com : "The n functions f1(x), f2(x), ..., fn(x) are linearly dependent if, for some c1, c2, ..., cn not all zero, sum(ci*fi) = 0" In your question you have : f1(x) = 1+x f2(x) = 1-x f3(x) = 1+x+x² So if f1, f2 and f3 are linearly dependent, we can find constants a, b and c such that : a*f1(x) + b*f2(x) + c*f3(x) = 0 for every imaginable value of x. AND either a <> 0, b <> 0 or c <> 0. We can expand out the equation to get : a*f1(x) + b*f2(x) + c*f3(x) = a + ax + b - bx + c + cx +cx² = 0 We can collect together terms : (a + b + c) + (a - b + c)x + cx² = 0 For this to be true for all x, we need to have each coefficient for each power of x = 0. So straight away, we see that c = 0. (Otherwise we have an "uncontrollable" term in x²) Then a + b = 0 and a - b = 0. This can only be true if b = 0. This implies that a = 0. But we need to have at least one of a, b or c be non-zero. Hence f1, f2 and f3 cannot be linearly dependent. So they must be linearly independent. Hope this helps calebu2-ga Useful resources : http://mathworld.wolfram.com/LinearlyDependentFunctions.html Search strategy : Linearly dependent functions |
madukar-ga rated this answer: |
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Subject:
Re: vector algebra
From: kennyh-ga on 19 Jan 2003 00:00 PST |
To show that f1,f2, f3 are linearly indep, i.e. to prove a=b=c=0 From (a + b + c) + (a - b + c)x + cx² = 0 ...(*) Since x is arbitrary, Set x = 0, we have a + b + c = 0..(1) Take derivative of (*): a - b + c + 2cx = 0..(**) Set x = 0, we have a - b + c = 0..(2) Set x = 1, we have a - b + 3c = 0..(3) (3)-(2): c = 0 so we have a + b = 0 & a - b = 0 Hence, a = b =c = 0 I don't suggest that assigning c = 0 to start solving the equation. Even theoretically it is OK. (about an "uncontrollable" term in x²) A general consideration: We also can give a simple explanation why they are linearly indep: Because the determinant of the 3x3 coefficient matrix is non-zero. |1 1 0| |1 -1 0| (det = -2)(since {1, x,x^2} is a basis of the vs P2 (poly of deg <=2) |1 1 1| In fact, if f1= a1 + b1x+ c1 x^2 f2= a2 + b2x+ c2 x^2 f3= a3 + b3x+ c3 x^2 if the det of the coefficient matrix is non-zero then f1,f2, f3 must be linearly indep. In other words, we don't have to test the indep one by one. Kenny |
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