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| Subject:
vector algebra
Category: Science > Math Asked by: madukar-ga List Price: $2.00 |
Posted:
15 Jan 2003 14:03 PST
Expires: 14 Feb 2003 14:03 PST Question ID: 143175 |
are the functions 1+x,1-x,1+x+xsquare linearly independent or linearly dependent? why? |
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| Subject:
Re: vector algebra
Answered By: calebu2-ga on 15 Jan 2003 14:15 PST Rated: ![]() |
From mathworld.com : "The n functions f1(x), f2(x), ..., fn(x) are linearly dependent if, for some c1, c2, ..., cn not all zero, sum(ci*fi) = 0" In your question you have : f1(x) = 1+x f2(x) = 1-x f3(x) = 1+x+x² So if f1, f2 and f3 are linearly dependent, we can find constants a, b and c such that : a*f1(x) + b*f2(x) + c*f3(x) = 0 for every imaginable value of x. AND either a <> 0, b <> 0 or c <> 0. We can expand out the equation to get : a*f1(x) + b*f2(x) + c*f3(x) = a + ax + b - bx + c + cx +cx² = 0 We can collect together terms : (a + b + c) + (a - b + c)x + cx² = 0 For this to be true for all x, we need to have each coefficient for each power of x = 0. So straight away, we see that c = 0. (Otherwise we have an "uncontrollable" term in x²) Then a + b = 0 and a - b = 0. This can only be true if b = 0. This implies that a = 0. But we need to have at least one of a, b or c be non-zero. Hence f1, f2 and f3 cannot be linearly dependent. So they must be linearly independent. Hope this helps calebu2-ga Useful resources : http://mathworld.wolfram.com/LinearlyDependentFunctions.html Search strategy : Linearly dependent functions |
madukar-ga
rated this answer:
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| Subject:
Re: vector algebra
From: kennyh-ga on 19 Jan 2003 00:00 PST |
To show that f1,f2, f3 are linearly indep, i.e. to prove a=b=c=0
From
(a + b + c) + (a - b + c)x + cx² = 0 ...(*)
Since x is arbitrary,
Set x = 0, we have a + b + c = 0..(1)
Take derivative of (*): a - b + c + 2cx = 0..(**)
Set x = 0, we have a - b + c = 0..(2)
Set x = 1, we have a - b + 3c = 0..(3)
(3)-(2): c = 0 so we have a + b = 0 & a - b = 0
Hence, a = b =c = 0
I don't suggest that assigning c = 0 to start solving the equation.
Even
theoretically it is OK. (about an "uncontrollable" term in x²)
A general consideration:
We also can give a simple explanation why they are linearly indep:
Because the determinant of the 3x3 coefficient matrix is non-zero.
|1 1 0|
|1 -1 0| (det = -2)(since {1, x,x^2} is a basis of the vs P2 (poly of
deg <=2)
|1 1 1|
In fact, if f1= a1 + b1x+ c1 x^2
f2= a2 + b2x+ c2 x^2
f3= a3 + b3x+ c3 x^2
if the det of the coefficient matrix is non-zero then f1,f2, f3 must
be linearly indep. In other words, we don't have to test the indep one
by one.
Kenny |
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