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Subject:
Loan question
Category: Business and Money Asked by: shoaib-ga List Price: $2.00 |
Posted:
29 Mar 2003 00:55 PST
Expires: 28 Apr 2003 01:55 PDT Question ID: 182727 |
If a financial organization provides "greater than 100% loan-to-value property loan" then in this situation 'what' is the 'security' for the above mentioned loan-to-value loan besides upto 100% loan-to-value mortgage loan? |
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Subject:
Re: Loan question
Answered By: davidmaymudes-ga on 29 Mar 2003 08:57 PST |
typically, the part of the loan over the value of the house is unsecured, like a credit card. the partially-secured nature of the loan generally means that the interest rate won't be as bad as the worst credit card rates, but the interest rates are typically far above what you would pay with a conventional mortage. I suppose from the lender's point of view, the fact that the house exists at all indicates the borrower must have had enough money to buy it at one point, and is therefore a better risk than if the house didn't exist at all. I hope this helps you out! thanks, David there are many web sites which discuss the risks of high LTV loans: see, for example: http://www.in.gov/dfi/consumer/pdfs/hltvloans.pdf http://www.bankrate.com/brm/green/loan/loan3h.asp?prodtype=loan search terms: high loan-to-value |
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