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Q: mean value theorem ( No Answer,   0 Comments )
Question  
Subject: mean value theorem
Category: Science > Math
Asked by: fmunshi-ga
List Price: $7.00
Posted: 25 Jun 2003 20:36 PDT
Expires: 26 Jun 2003 04:57 PDT
Question ID: 221830
use the mean value theorem to show that 
cos(x)<=(2^-(1/2))(1+(pi/4)-x) for 0<= x < pi/2
and
cos(x)<=(2^-(1/2))+(pi/4)-x for pi/4<= x < pi

Request for Question Clarification by chis-ga on 26 Jun 2003 00:26 PDT
fmunshi,

I can show you how to prove these statements, but are you sure that
you are supposed to be using the mean value theorem?  I am not seeing
a relation.

-chis
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