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Q: Finance ( Answered 5 out of 5 stars,   0 Comments )
Question  
Subject: Finance
Category: Reference, Education and News > Education
Asked by: boobee-ga
List Price: $10.00
Posted: 09 Jul 2003 18:07 PDT
Expires: 08 Aug 2003 18:07 PDT
Question ID: 227198
Any help in solving this problem will be appreciated -- formulas, web
sites, etc.


Dime a Dozen Diamonds makes synthetic diamonds by treating carbon.
Each diamond can be sold for $100.
The materials cost for a standard diamond is $30. The fixed costs
incurred each year for factory upkeep
and administrative expenses are $200,000. The machinery costs $1
million a year and is depreciated
straight-line over 10 years to a salvage value of zero.						
						
In part a, enter the formula to calculate the break-even point. In
part b, enter the formulas to calculate
all the unknown items (you will know that your formulas are correct if
the NPV is approximately equal to 0.
						
a. What is the accounting break-even level of sales in terms of number
of diamonds sold?
						
Accounting break-even point		FORMULA	diamonds			
						
b. What is the NPV break-even sales assuming a tax rate of 35 percent,
a 10-year project life and a discount
rate of 12 percent?						
						
Number of diamonds	5,978					
Annuity factor	5.650 					
Revenue	FORMULA					
Variable Expenses	FORMULA					
Depreciation	FORMULA					
Fixed expenses						
Cash Flow	FORMULA					
Present value of cash flow	$0.00 					
Net present value	($1,000,000.00)
Answer  
Subject: Re: Finance
Answered By: livioflores-ga on 09 Jul 2003 23:24 PDT
Rated:5 out of 5 stars
 
Hi again boobee!!

a. What is the accounting break-even level of sales in terms of number
of diamonds sold?
The machinery costs $1 million a year and is depreciated straight-line
over 10 years to a salvage value of zero. That means Depreciations per
year:
$1,000,000 / 10 = $100,000 .

The point at which EBIT = 0 is the break-even level of sales.
In other words:
sales break-even point = level of sales necessary to cover operating
(not financial) costs.

At the break-even level of sales:
EBIT  = Revenues - Variable costs - Fixed costs - Depreciation = 0 ; 
then:
Revenues - Variable costs = Fixed costs + Depreciation

If q = quantity; p = price per unit; v = variable cost per unit, then
Revenues = q.p   and   Variable costs = q.v   

We will have:
Revenues - Variable costs = q.p - q.v = q.(p - v) 
Revenues - Variable costs = q.(p - v) = Fixed costs + Depreciation

Then:
q = (Fixed costs + Depreciation) / (p - v)
q = ($200,000 + $100,000) / ($100 - $30) = $300,000 / $70 = 4285.71

The break-even level of sales in terms of number of diamonds sold is
4,286 diamonds.



b. What is the NPV break-even sales assuming a tax rate of 35 percent,
a
10-year project life and a discount rate of 12 percent?

Revenues = q.p = 5,978 x $100 = $597,800

Variable expenses (or variable costs) = q.v = 5,978 x $30 = $179,340

Fixed Expenses = $200,000

Total Expenses = $179,340 + $200,000 = $379,340

Depreciation (straight-line)= $1,000,000 / 10 years = $100,000 per
year.

Tax rate (T) = 0.35

Cash Flow = (1-T).(Revenues - Total Expenses) + T . Depreciation = 
          = 0.65 . ($597,800 - $379,340) + 0.35 . $100,000 =
          = $141,999 + $35,000 =
          = $176,999

Present value of cash flow (PVcf)= Cash Flow x Annuity factor 
 
The 12%, 10-year annuity factor is 5.650 , then:
PVcf = $176,999 x 5.650 = $1,000,044.35


NPV = PVcf - Initial Investment

NPV = $1,000,044.35 - $1,000,000 = $44.35

This error is acceptable, you can see that walking the reverse way:

NPV = 5.650 x (0.65 .(q.p - q.v - FC) + 0.35 . D ) - $1,000,000 = 0

Then
$1,000,000 / 5.650 - 0.35 . $100,000 = 0.65 .q .(p-v) - 0.65 .
$200,000
$141,991.15 = 0.65 . q . ($100 - $30) - $130,000  
Then
$271,991.15 = 0.65 . q . $70
then q = $271,991.15 / (0.65 . $70) = 5977.83 diamonds; this quantity
must be rounded to 5978 diamonds (this is the origin of the $44.35
error).

I hope this helps. If something in the answer is obscure or unclear
please post a request of a clarification before rating this answer.

Regards.
livioflores-ga

Request for Answer Clarification by boobee-ga on 10 Jul 2003 19:02 PDT
Hi livioflores

I inputted your calculations into my excel workbook and got the
following.  It states that if the figures are correct that the npv
will be approx. 0.  Please advise.

In part a, enter the formula to calculate the break-even point. In
part b, enter the formulas to calculate
all the unknown items (you will know that your formulas are correct if
the NPV is approximately equal to 0.
						
a. What is the accounting break-even level of sales in terms of number
of diamonds sold?
						
Accounting break-even point		4,286 	diamonds			
						
b. What is the NPV break-even sales assuming a tax rate of 35 percent,
a 10-year project life and a discount
rate of 12 percent?						
						
Number of diamonds	5,978					
Annuity factor	5.650 					
Revenue	$597,800 					
Variable Expenses	$179,340 					
Depreciation	$1,000,000 					
Fixed expenses	$200,000 					
Cash Flow	$176,999 					
Present value of cash flow	$1,000,083.83 					
Net present value	$83.83

Clarification of Answer by livioflores-ga on 10 Jul 2003 22:01 PDT
Hi boobee!!

I donīt understand what kind of clarification are you requesting.
If you are asking for the difference between "my" NPV and "your" NPV,
I can say you that the difference is acceptable considering possible
rounding errors. Looking at the values that you have found, the
difference appears in the Present value of cash flow, where you may be
use a more exact annuity factor of 5.650223028 that Excel uses in its
function Present Value (PV).

Note: this is can easy to see giving to PV function the following
parameters: Rate = 0.12 , nper = 10 , pmt = 1 , fv = 0 , type = 0 .
Doing this you are calculating the future value of 10 annual payments
of $1 at a rate of 12%.
The definition of Annuity factor is: An annuity factor is the present
value at discount rate r of an annuity of $1 paid at the end of each
of t periods; so we just calculated the annuity factor for 10 years at
rate of 12%.

I conclude that your the answer found by you is more exact than mine
because you have used a "better" (more exact) value of annuity factor.

This page of "The University of Texas at Austin" website may help you
to understand this clarification (and I hope will be useful in the
future):
"Financial Functions in Microsoft Excel":
http://www.utexas.edu/its/training/handouts/excelff/

I hope this satisfy your request for a clarification, if not, please
let me know and I will gladly answer to your new request.

Best Regards.
livioflores-ga
boobee-ga rated this answer:5 out of 5 stars
Thanks for the clarification -- I suspected that it was a "rounding" thing but
just wanted to make sure.  Thanks for the website it is excellent!

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