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Subject:
infinte series
Category: Science > Math Asked by: fmunshi-ga List Price: $5.00 |
Posted:
20 Jul 2003 20:42 PDT
Expires: 19 Aug 2003 20:42 PDT Question ID: 233187 |
if ak>0 and sum(ak) converges. will the series sum((ak)^(1/2)) converge |
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Subject:
Re: infinte series
Answered By: elmarto-ga on 20 Jul 2003 22:50 PDT |
Hello fmnushi! The answer is that it will not always converge. Take for example the sequence ak = 1/(k^2) then sum(ak) (with k from 0 to infinity) converges. You can check this result in the page that follows. However, ak^(1/2) gives 1/k. The sum(1/k) (which is called the harmonic series) is not convergent. This result is always shown in the following link. Convergence Tests for Infinite series http://www.math.hmc.edu/calculus/tutorials/convergence/ Google search strategy used series convergence p-series ://www.google.com/search?q=series+convergence+p-series&hl=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-8&start=10&sa=N I hope this helps! If you have any doubts regarding my answer, please don't hesitate to request a clarification. Best wishes! elmarto |
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