If an employee has objected to illegally breaking copyright laws for
his employer, and the law becomes involved, who is charged, the
company or the employee.

---

Request for Question Clarification by journalist-ga on 26 Aug 2003 20:10 PDT

Greetings Agnes75,

A few clarifications, please:

Does the employee have any proof, be it a journal or datebook
notation, memo, witness, taped conversation or such of the objection?

Is the employee working under a freelance contract or is he/she an
hourly/salary employee on the regular payroll?

Is the employer a newspaper or magazine and, if so, did the employee
turn in the work with the proper citation/attribution and was it
removed by someone higher up the organizational ladder?

These clarifications by you will greatly assist a Researcher in
locating the answer to your question.

Best regards,
journalist-ga

---

Clarification of Question by agnes75-ga on 28 Aug 2003 00:09 PDT

My son works for a major oilfield company.  His supervisor instructed
him to disburse hundreds of tapes to affiliates, though they were
copyrighted.  Fearing for his job, he did.  A week later, he told his
supervisor, that this was breaking the law.

He sent her an email to that effect.
He apprised one of the vice presidents
The employer is not a newspaper
He is a salaried employee
He is also the "whistleblower"

Does that help?  He is only 29 and a family to support, so noticebly
disturbed.

Copyright cases are tort cases, so the question is not who gets
charged, but who gets sued.  And the answer that question, follow the
money.  And who has more assets: you or your employer?