In western music, the most commonly used scale is the "major diatonic
scale" - a C scale of this type corresponds to the white keys of a
piano. The major diatonic scale is a subset of the "evenly tempered
chromatic scale". This scale consists of the following notes:
A
A# (or A sharp, or Bb, or B flat)
B
C
C# (or C sharp, or Db, or D flat)
D
D# (or D sharp, or Eb, or E flat)
E
F
F# (or F sharp, or Gb, or G flat)
G
G# (or G sharp, or Ab, or A flat)
[A# and B is sometimes referred to as B and H respectively, but this
is not relevant when answering this question.]
These twelwe notes span over an octave. An octave is the interval of
two tones where one has a frequency that is the double of the other.
In western culture, the octave is dived into twelwe semitones - this
is partly a cultural artifact and partly due to human physiology.
Originally, these twelwe tones were tuned after what sounds well to
the human ear, "justly tempered". This sounds good when music is
played in the particluar key that an instrument is tuned to, but the
sound will not sound very good if you attempt to play it in a
different key (without retunin the instrument). This is because the
frequency differences are not eavenly spread out across the scale.
In the "evenly tempered" chromatic scale (which is commonly used
today) the twelwe notes are equally spread out across the scale.
Mathematically, this implies that the frequency of two adjacent notes
are separated by a factor that is equal to the 12th root of 2;
2^(1/12) = 1.0594631. You can read more on the differences between
just and equal tempered scales at
http://www.phy.mtu.edu/~suits/scales.html
If you look at a piano keyboard, you will notice that an octave
consists of 7 large white and 5 smaller black keys. The frequency of
two adjacent keys (regardless of colour) will always differ by a
factor of the 12th root of 2 (there is an illustration of this at
http://www.chordwizard.com/hmw109.asp). There is no B sharp because B
and C are only a semitone apart, just like C and C sharp only differ
by a semitone.
Any major diatonic scale has steps of 2,2,1,2,2,2 and 1 seminotes -
corresponding to C, D, E, F, G, A and B in a diatonic C major scale.
There are no "missing frequencies" - it just happens that these seteps
have been selected as the steps of a major diatonic scale. This is a
matter of cultural preference - other cultures have divised musical
scales that follow different patterns.
I hope this answers your question. If not, please request an answer
clarification berfore you proceed to rate it.
Suggestions for further reading:
http://www.foundation.bw/MusicTheorySummary.htm gives a handy summary
of the theory behind tones, notes and scales. If you'd like to get
into deeper detail about different scales used in western music,
please see http://www.phy.mtu.edu/~suits/west_scales.html.
Search term used on Google:
frequency OR frequencies "chromatic scale" |
Clarification of Answer by
blazius-ga
on
31 Mar 2004 03:58 PST
Unfortunately, some typing errors were included in the final answer:
- In the paragraph starting with "These twelwe notes", please read
'dived' as 'divided'
- In the next paragraph, 'the sound will not sound very good' should
have been 'the chords will not sound very good'
- Towards the end of the answer, 'steps' has become 'seteps'
I am sorry for these typos!
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Clarification of Answer by
blazius-ga
on
31 Mar 2004 04:04 PST
By the way - you can find a table of the frequencies of the notes of
the evenly tempered chromatic scale at
http://www.phy.mtu.edu/~suits/notefreqs.html
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Request for Answer Clarification by
mirrormere-ga
on
31 Mar 2004 12:56 PST
I don't feel this question has been answered yet.
You say it 'just happens' that these steps have been selected as a
major scale. How did it just happen, and why? It seems it would be
simpler to designate all notes an equal distance apart, with sharps
and flats for the frequencies in between. Yet B and C are "only a
semitone apart." To what purpose? It can't have been just a roll of
the dice.
To say that it is a cultural preference doesn't tell much ... the
notation division had to exist for some reason before it became a
cultural preference.
Also -- perhaps more importantly -- it seems as though sharps and
flats sound different, they have a different quality to the human ear.
So how could there be no no C-flat sound? or if there is a C-flat, why
does it not sound the same as the other family of flat note sounds,
and thus deserve a similar designation?
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Clarification of Answer by
blazius-ga
on
01 Apr 2004 14:17 PST
I will address your last concern first: Flats and sharps on a major
diatonic scale does *not* have a different sound from the other notes.
The trained (and talented) ear may be able to tell that a tone is a
sharp or flat by being able to determine its exact pitch. (Also, on a
piano, the black keys may give a slightly different sound than the
white ones because they have been played less! This phenomenon has
nothing to do with the scale itself - it is a consequence of the
mechanics of the instrument.)
You are inquiring about the "C flat". If it existed, the C flat would
be pitched a semitone lower than the C. This frequency is already
occupied by the B. You could argue that the B is actually a C flat,
but that would be generating a scale that is not consistent with what
most other people use.
Cultural preferences certainly play a major part in determining the
number and distribution of notes in a scale. A scale is a method of
organizing sound into music and can be based on any number of notes.
Among the many styles of music, a scale using seven tones (notes) is
the basis of Western music. The Chinese and the Scots traditionally
use five-note scales and some Vedic music uses 22 notes. Arab music
divides the octave into sixteen unequal intervals, making it entirely
different from Western scales. (See
http://www.timestar.org/diatonic.htm and
http://www.ericweisstein.com/encyclopedias/music/Scale.html for
further details.)
And even if one settles for dividing the octave into 12 seminotes and
organizing these into seven "main" notes and five sharps/flats, it is
still possible to devise several different ways of tempering the
scale. It is even possible to play a diatonic scale in different
modes - we are most familiar with the major and minor modes, but there
are several others - see
http://www.encyclopedia4u.com/m/musical-mode.html for more
information.
The selection of a particular scale, temperament and mode is a matter
of taste and indoctrination. If you grew up in China in the 12th
century, our modern diatonic scale would probably sound as foreign to
you as a classical Chinese opera sound to you today.
However, there are models that try to explain why the major diatonic
scale has seven notes arranged in the particular 2-2-1-2-2-2-1
semitone pattern. http://www.ericweisstein.com/encyclopedias/music/DiatonicScale.html
shows how the frequency of certain notes have a 4:5:6 relationship.
This is a theory that tries to explain the scale - this reasoning was
certainly not behind the minds that evolved the diatonic scale to be
what it is today.
Explaining the layout of our diatonic scale is a bit like trying to
explain the distribution of letters in the alphabet. Why is G the 6th
letter? Why are the wowels not eavenly spread out between the
consonants? A B C D E F... may sound like the only natural thing to
do for us, but why is it any more logical than Z Q H S I P...?
Thanks for allowing me to work with your intriguing question. If you
have any further concerns, please post them here. I'll go away on an
Easter break tomorrow, but I'll respond to any further requests as
soon as I am back.
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Clarification of Answer by
blazius-ga
on
01 Apr 2004 14:22 PST
I forgot to address your idea of designating all notes an equal
distance apart, with sharps and flats for the frequencies in between.
This is certainly possible. However, you would have to spend some
time persuading your audience into thinking music made with such a
scale would be worth listening to.
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Request for Answer Clarification by
mirrormere-ga
on
05 Apr 2004 01:49 PDT
Having read through the various links here, I haven't found an answer
to my question. All of the articles I've read simply present
half-steps in the diatonic scale as a given. There seems to be no
mathmatical or physical need for half-steps to exist, or to exist
precisely where they do.
So far, if someone asked me, "Why do half-steps exist on the music
scale?" I would, based on the information here, answer, "There is no
known reason why half steps exist or how they came about." Is this
correct?
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Clarification of Answer by
blazius-ga
on
15 Apr 2004 07:51 PDT
There is certainly no mathmatical or physical need for half-steps to
exist. If sound and harmony is regarded in a purely scientific
matter, there is no reason to count a certain combination of tones as
more "significant" or "neccessary" as any other combination. Tones
with frequencies that are related by certain fractions might be
considered interesting because they might interfere with each other
(playing one string on a guitar will cause vibration in other
strings). The frequency of C2 is exactly the double of a C - a
doubling of frequency is the definition of an octave.
The particular note distribution of the major diatonic scale has
probably evolved out of musicians' desire to produce as many pleasing
(and playable!) harmonies as possible when using alimited number of
notes. "Pleasing" is a pivotal point here, as the definition of what
is gentle to the ear varies between different cultures.
http://www.andymilne.dial.pipex.com/Diatonic.shtml goes into deeper
detail about the diatonic scales. The text suggests that the diatonic
scales became popular because they have "a high number of consonant
intervals [and] the greatest possible number of major and minor
triads. [..] The diatonic scale is the only seven note scale that has
just one tritone (augmented fourth/diminished fifth). All other
scales have two, or more, tritones. [..] The diatonic scale is
therefore an ideal resource for both melodic and harmonic music - it
has lots of consonant triads, it has few dissonant intervals, and it
is melodically smooth with just two consecutive-step sizes."
I have to admit that this subject has started to become a bit too
tough to comprehend for a musical amateur like me. However, I do
believe that your original question (which asked about the physical
properties of the notes) have been answered by now. Scales, notes and
half-steps are an artistic tool created by humans. Physical tones (as
opposed to notes) are only described by their frequencies, and they
are not limited by the restrictions impoesd by musical theory.
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