In early legal documents, I've seen signatures that appear to have
been written by the scribe, followed by, e.g., the wife's "Her Mark."
As long as there are witnesses to these "signatures," could the
husbnd's "signature" in fact have not been authenic without
invalidating the document?

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Request for Question Clarification by nenna-ga on 09 Apr 2004 09:13 PDT

Could you elaborate more on what you're looking for?

Nenna-GA

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Clarification of Question by bill12369-ga on 14 Apr 2004 12:25 PDT

What was the law concerning early (e.g., 17?18th century Colonies of
VA and NC) documents signed by mark? Was it ever permitted that the
scribe preparing the document could sign the principal's signature as
long as qualified witnesses also signed in confirmation?