In the early Christain era (prior to 323AD) what was the relationship between
the "Chalace" and the concept of the "Christos".  

Thanks in advance.

Charlie5545

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Request for Question Clarification by pinkfreud-ga on 20 May 2004 13:30 PDT

Do you mean "chalice?"

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Clarification of Question by charlie5545-ga on 20 May 2004 20:18 PDT

I'M SORRY.  "CHALACY" AS IN THE SYMBOLOGY OF THE "HOLY GRAIL".

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Request for Question Clarification by nenna-ga on 21 May 2004 10:58 PDT

Please take a look at this link, and the suggestion it gives you. If
the suggestion is correct, once you've browsed the pages, could you
let us know.

://www.google.com/search?num=100&hl=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&safe=off&c2coff=1&q=CHALACY++++holy+grail&btnG=Search


Nenna-GA

For Charlie 5545. The Chalice or cup that Jesus passed among His
apostles during the last supper had no significance other than it held
wine. What was of extreme significance was the fact that Jesus was
comparing the taking into themselves of the wine with the taking into
themselves the appreciation of the value of Jesus`, soon to be spilt,
blood. The fact that Jesus was aware that He was to be killed, and why
He was to be killed. A ransom sacrifice. His perfect life in exchange
for many. The "many" is all of us. The "Christ", or Christos in Jesus`
name means the "Anointed One", Messiah, or in hebrew, Ma-shi`-ach. The
first is a simple cup, the second is a title. Any powers attributed to
the cup through legend or otherwise, is the invention of men, and
takes away from the importance of Jesus` sacrifice. Mark 10;45 says
"The son of man came, not to be ministered to, but TO minister, and to
give his soul a ransom in exchange for many". By paying over the value
of that ransom in heaven, Jesus opened the way for mankind, the
offspring of the first man, Adam, to be delivered from the sentence of
sin and death that we all inherited when Adam first sinned.Genesis
3;17-19,22-24.