When did the term "Jew" first appear?  The Columbia Encyclopedia says
this about the appearance of "Judaism": "The term itself was first
used by Hellenized Jews to describe their religious practice, but it
is of predominantly modern usage; it is not used in the Bible or in
Rabbinic literature and only rarely in the literature of the medieval
period."  But I'm interested in arrival of "Jew."

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Request for Question Clarification by pinkfreud-ga on 19 Sep 2004 15:34 PDT

Is the exact spelling of 'Jew' important to you? I've found a citation
from the 13th Century, but the spelling is not the same as in modern
English.

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Request for Question Clarification by pinkfreud-ga on 19 Sep 2004 15:36 PDT

Excuse my typo; I meant to say '12th Century' in my remark above.

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Clarification of Question by jlneedham-ga on 19 Sep 2004 17:28 PDT

Whether the usage was "Jews" or "Jew," I'm not concerned.  I just want
to know when people of Jewish descent, whether from the tribe of Judah
or other (Levi), took on, or were given, the name Jews.

As I mentioned, the 12th Century word was not spelled in the same way,
but it would have been pronounced similarly.

"Jew (n.)  
c.1175 (in plural, giwis), from Anglo-Fr. iuw, from O.Fr. giu, from L.
Judaeum (nom. Judaeus), from Gk. Ioudaios, from Aramaic jehudhai (Heb.
y'hudi 'Jew,' from Y'hudah 'Judah,' lit. 'celebrated,' name of Jacob's
fourth son and of the tribe descended from him. Replaced O.E. Iudeas
'the Jews.' Originally, 'Hebrew of the kingdom of Judah.' Jews' harp
'simple mouth harp' is from 1584, earlier Jews' trump (1545); the
connection with Jewishness is obscure. Jew-baiting first recorded
1853, in ref. to Ger. Judenhetze. In uneducated times, inexplicable
ancient artifacts were credited to Jews, based on the biblical
chronology of history: e.g. Jews' money (1577) 'Roman coins found in
England.' In Greece, after Christianity had erased the memory of
classical glory, ruins of pagan temples were called Jews' castles."

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?l=j&p=2

I hope another Researcher will be able to determine when the spelling
'Jew' was first used.

Please let me know if this extensive history on the origin of the term
"Jew" (and related names) answers your question. I think it will.

http://engforum.pravda.ru/showthread.php3?postid=907095

Regards;
tutuzdad-ga

Hi JLNEEDHAM, The word Jew is indeed in the Bible, both in the Old
Testament and the New testament. Second Kings [O.T.] 18;26..speak with
your servants please, in ther syrian language, for we can listen; and
do not speak with us in the JEW`S language in the ears of the people
that are on the wall.
Esther 8;17..and many of the peoples of the land were declaring
themselves JEWS; for the dread of the JEWS had fallen upon them.
Zechariah 8;23 [ a prophecy] "This is what Jehovah [ God`s name] of
armies has said, 'It will be in those days that ten men out of all the
languages of the nations will take hold, yes, they will actually take
hold of the skirt of a man who is a JEW,[Jesus] saying ; "We will go
with you people, for we have heard that God is with you people".
Roman 2;29..But he is a JEW who is one on the inside, and his
circumcision  is that of the heart, by spirit, and not by written
code. The praise of that one comes, not from men, but from God". "
[again, Jesus]
Romans 3;29..Or is he the God of the JEWS only? Is he not also of
people of the nations? Yes, of people of the nations also.
First Corinthians 1;23..but we preach Christ impaled, to the JEWS a
cause for stumbling, but to the nations, foolishness.
First Corinthians 9;20..[ Paul speaking] and so to the JEWS I became
as a JEW, that I might gain JEWS; to those under law I became as under
law, though I myself am not under law, that I might gain those under
law. [ Paul converting people from being JEWS to being christians]
Galations 3;28..There is neither JEW nor Greek, there is neither slave
nor freeman, there is neither male nor female, for you are all one
person in un ion with Christ Jesus.
Revelation 3;9..Look!, I will give those from the Synagogue of Satan
who say they are JEWS, and yet they are not but are lying-look!, I
will make them come and do obeisance before your feet and make them
know I have loved you.
Nehemiah 4;1..and he kept deriding the JEWS...
Esther 3;4..for he had told them he was a JEW...
Matthew 2;2..saying, where is the one born King of the JEWS....
Matthew 27;11..Jesus now stood before the governor; and the governor
put the question to him, "are you the King of the JEWS?" Jesus
replied, " You, yourself say it..
Colossians 3;11..Where there is neither Greek nor JEW, circumcision
nor un-circumcision, foreigner, Scythian, slave, freeman, but Christ
is all things and in all.

So it IS in the Bible.

Well, it depends on the translation you're using. Many Bibles use the
(perhaps more correct?) term "Hebrews."

Kriswrite

I don't know about the Christian Bible. But in the Jewish Bible, the
four references given by Pugwash -- and about 70 others, mostly from
the Book of Esther -- are all "Yehudi" or "Yehudim" in the Hebrew. So
the correct answer is sometime during the Biblical period.

-- ravuri-ga