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Subject:
Reading of verse's
Category: Relationships and Society > Religion Asked by: josephjphs-ga List Price: $15.00 |
Posted:
27 Oct 2004 17:24 PDT
Expires: 26 Nov 2004 16:24 PST Question ID: 420984 |
Reading Verse's in the bible,how do you understand what is beging said ?,E.G "(He,Who) that hath ears to hear, "Let him hear !" (There are two reading of the same Verse,Read one line or a statement upto a period or a comma,using the first half value) in this example of formulated reading what would be the "First half value" ?? | |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: Reading of verse's
From: nelson-ga on 27 Oct 2004 17:57 PDT |
There should be no apostrophe in the word "verses" (plural) when this is a simply referring to more than on verse. "Verse's" (singular possessive) means "of the verse". "Verses'" would mean "of the verses" (plural possessive). |
Subject:
Re: Reading of verse's
From: pugwashjw-ga on 28 Oct 2004 00:06 PDT |
Hi Joseph jphs. Your verse is apparently from the King James version in old english. This alone makes it hard to understand when most of us use normal [ for today] english. The "he" in your verse refers to the listener, to whom Jesus was speaking [ as part of a crowd of listeners]. Jesus used very simple language to the ordinary people, whereas the religious leaders of the day were more interested in holding on to their power and subjecting their congregations to following the 600 or so traditional laws which were very difficult to keep. A scripture that nowadays causes many arguments is John 1;1. In the NEW WORLD Translation, it reads "In the beginning, the Word [ Jesus] was [existed] and the Word [ Jesus] was with God [together]and the Word was a god [ spiritual being]. Verse 2. This one [Jesus] was in the beginning with [ alongside] God. The words in brackets are not in the Bible. Other versions of the Bible have left out the "a" before "god" , small 'g', to say the Jesus is God himself. John 17;5 states..'So now you Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside You before the earth was [ existed]". However, Jesus said the he was unable to do anything of his own initiative. Check scriptures john 5;19,30, 7;28, 8;28, 8;42 and 10;18. This shows Jesus was a separate individual from his father, God Almighty, who no man has seen and yet lived . Exodus 33;20. People DID see Jesus on the earth and benefited from it. The above scriptures, checkable in the King James version, negate the concept of the "Trinity", three gods in one, a carryover from Babylonish teachings. So to understand whether a scripture is written correctly, it is necessary to cross reference with other associated scriptures throughout the entire Bible and not just take one scripture in isolation. |
Subject:
Re: Reading of verse's
From: jack_of_few_trades-ga on 28 Oct 2004 05:12 PDT |
Pugwash, from the way Joseph wrote the question I think you've done nothing to help him learn what he is looking for. First to somewhat answer the question... Joseph: There are many ways to interperate various verses in the bible. The best advice I can offer is to read the context of the surrounding verses as well as the context of the whole bible then form your opinion of what a verse means. It will take quite some time to have a good understanding of scripture but the more you read the more you will understand for yourself. Pugwash was correct in that the bible you are reading (The King James Version) is a difficult one to read. It was translated a long time ago and uses language that is no longer in use. Many people like the New International Version (NIV), the New American Standard (NAS), or the New Living Translation. Or if you'd like a little bit more interperitation built into the reading but a much easier to read bible I suggest The Message (it reads much more like a novel than any other translation). Pugwash: I found the New World Translation to see where you are coming from... and I now see [understand] where your [Pugwash's] brackets come from. I know you most likely won't put any stock in what I'm about to say, but for those other readers out there... I highly suggest that you don't take any one translation and put it above the others. There are definately translations out there that are incorrect in ways, but to assume there is 1 in specific that dwarfs the others is to suggest that language is superior to God's ability to work in hearts. On a similar note, I am interested in how/when/where the NWT was translated. Honestly reading part of it I got the impression that their beliefs were formed and then they translated the words to fit those beliefs, but I would hope that's not the case. |
Subject:
Re: Reading of verse's
From: pinkfreud-ga on 01 Nov 2004 18:30 PST |
Joseph, Please do not let anyone convince you that the Bible is hard to understand, or that there are hidden meanings that must be discerned by man-made methods. The Bible itself says nothing about "reading in tongues." If this technique (or, indeed, any technique) were essential to understanding the Word, would it not be mentioned in Scripture? I urge you to find a translation of the Bible that is written in modern language. The King James Version is beautiful, but unless you are familiar with 17th Century English, it may be unnecessarily difficult. And do continue to pray for the guidance of the Holy Spirit as you study. Without His help, the Bible is just ink and paper. With His help, it is the living Word of God. |
Subject:
Re: Reading of verse's
From: pugwashjw-ga on 10 Nov 2004 10:35 PST |
Hi there Jack. In answer to your query on the translation of the NWB, to judge whether its modern english carries the same meaning as the old english in the King James version, it is only a matter of comparing verses. Sometimes the verse numbers do not match. What is important is to grasp the whole theme of the Bible from cover to cover. And that is; As our creator, does God have the legal right to direct our lives. The question asked by Josephjphs about the scripture, worrying about where a comma would be placed, causes him to miss the point. The same remark, 'Let him that has ears listen', is a plea by Jesus to understand the principle, and not just hear. The plea is found at Matthew 11;15, 13;9, 13;43, Mark 4;9. 4;23, and 8;18. |
Subject:
Re: Reading of verse's
From: theologian-ga on 30 Nov 2004 21:49 PST |
I agree with pugwash on this one. Worrying about where the comma is placed is not the point here. Jesus wants us to hear what He is saying. But pug, I'm gonna have to disagree with you about who Jesus is. John 1:1 clearly says that Christ is God (as for the lower case "g" in God, all "g's" in the New Testament are lowercase". There is only one God, which you would agree with me about. There is no way Christ could be "a god" and still have that statement to be true. In John 20:28, Thomas calls Jesus his "Lord and his God." In John 8:58, Jesus says that before Abraham was "I AM." (For all that don't know, that is the exact name that God gave to Moses on Sinai). In Revelation 1:8 Christ refers to Himself as the "Alpha and Omega" (The beginning and the end). Lastly, in Philippians 2:6 Paul says that Jesus was in the form of God (the word used here is morphe, which means "exact being".) Christ is exactly what God is. He is God. Working in a Christian bookstore, I can confidently say that the most reliable, accurate, word-for-word translation out ther is the New American Standard Bible (NASB). Coming in a close second is the English Standard Version (ESV). I'm with Jack on this one, the NWT does make the Scriptures say what it wants it to to fit their beliefs. It is not an academically sound document. This can be noted by seeing that no names of editors or interpretors occur in any of the NWT Bibles. Neither do any names occur in any of the WatchTower documents. This should signal a red flag to anyone who wants a reliable, accurate translation. In His grace, Theologian <>< |
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