A few years ago (1998 ?), a friends wife made a fraudulent claim on
their insurance (approx $21,000). He was not aware of what she had
done until after the fact. He then found out recently (within the last
year or so), that his spouse sold the "lost" item to her mother. He
informed her mother that the item was part of an insurance fraud
scheme perpetrated by her daughter, and that would probably constitute
her receiving ?stolen goods? (the mother has done nothing to dispose
of the property, nor has she contacted the authorities). He is
currently going through a divorce, and he doesn?t want this to come
back and haunt him (yes, a little payback is probably a large part of
the motivation as well).
The actual fraud incident occurred in Nebraska (Insurer was in
Nebraska), and his wife and her mother currently live in Texas (so the
actual transfer of the ?lost? item was done in Texas). While we know
that Google Answers CANNOT give legal advice, here is the question(s):
1. If he reports the incident, will he in any way be held liable for it?
2. If her mother, knowingly, has taken possession of the property,
with full knowledge of its ?history?, would she be liable for any
criminal charges?
3. Are there any legal provisions that protect a spouse (him) from
situations such as these, where one spouse commits a crime,
unbeknownst to the other, and he doesn?t turn her in, because she is
his wife? (Granted, if it was murder he would have turned her in. Yes,
I know insurance fraud affects everyone else?s insurance rates, so it
is not a ?Victimless? crime).
4. Would the insurance company be willing to not press charges against
him for information leading to the conviction of his
spouse/mother-in-law?
5. As the actual two events took place in two different states, would
he report it in Nebraska and/or Texas?
He is currently trying to find out exactly when the fraud was
committed, as there may be a statute of limitations on it. Are there
any pro's or con's to reporting this???
What advice does Google have for my poor friend??? |