From page 34 of the source, we obtain the following equations:
The Value of the Firm = Free Cash Flow to the Firm/(cost of capital -
expected growth rate in perpetuity)
The Free Cash Flow to the Firm = Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (1
- tax rate) (1 - Reinvestment Rate)
The Reinvestment Rate = (Capital Expenditures - Depreciation - change
in Working Capital)/[Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (1 - tax
rate)]
By definition, (Earnings Before Interest and Taxes - Interest) (1 -
tax rate) = Net Income
We know that interest expense is $150 million, the tax rate is 50%,
and the net income is $50 million. Therefore, Earnings Before
Interest and Taxes are $250 million.
That makes the Reinvestment Rate = ($200 million - $100 million -
0)/[$250 million (0.5)] = 0.8.
In turn, the Free Cash Flow to the Firm = $250 million (0.5) (0.2) = $25 million.
Now we can calculate the Value of the Firm. It is $25 million/(0.11 -
0.04) or $357.14 million.
Sincerely,
Wonko
Source: "Valuation: Principles and Practice"
http://pages.stern.nyu.edu/~adamodar/pdfiles/acf2E/Chap12.pdf |