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Subject:
When did the term "free" first become applied to economics?
Category: Business and Money Asked by: duncancmu-ga List Price: $5.00 |
Posted:
22 Nov 2004 15:13 PST
Expires: 16 Jan 2005 17:56 PST Question ID: 432540 |
I'm writing a paper on trade and the term "free market" is constantly used. It occurred to me that it's interesting that the word "free" in English can mean both "open" and "urestricted", as it does in the sense of the market, but it also denotes "independence", a concept which is *totally opposed* to that of trade, ie if engaging in trade, one is *by definition dependent*, and not "free", in that sense of the word. So, in that sense, the term may be misleading to English-speakers. The word also carries definite political-emotional attachment for many Americans, and thus the usage of the term today, and the prevalence of support for "free trade" among the powerful is a nice coincidence for them. I would like to know, How and when did the term "free" enter the terminology of economics? Who was the first to use it? For instance, in the term "free markets" or "free enterprise"? I would like to know, if possible, when the term was first used in publication, or when it's use became accepted. Thanks, Duncan Carroll | |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: When did the term "free" first become applied to economics?
From: pinkfreud-ga on 22 Nov 2004 21:50 PST |
The Oxford English Dictionary cites a 1606 usage of "free trade," and notes that the famed economist Adam Smith popularized the term in the late 1700s. |
Subject:
Re: When did the term "free" first become applied to economics?
From: answerfinder-ga on 23 Nov 2004 01:31 PST |
An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations by Adam Smith Ch.8, Conclusion of the Mercantile System in paragraph IV.8.26 "This reduction of price, it may perhaps be thought, by discouraging the growing of wool, must have reduced very much the annual produce of that commodity, though not below what it formerly was, yet below what, in the present state of things, it probably would have been, had it, in consequence of an open and free market, been allowed to rise to the natural and proper price." Numerous references to ?free trade? Use the search facility here: http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN.html |
Subject:
Re: When did the term "free" first become applied to economics?
From: frde-ga on 23 Nov 2004 03:16 PST |
<quote> ie if engaging in trade, one is *by definition dependent*, and not "free", </quote> Not necessarily: 'One takes on bonds in order to be Free' 'Positive Freedom' - a positive sum game Perhaps look at the antitheses - giving monopolies - Tariffs Governments have always faced problems in raising revenue to support themselves and buy the favour of those who support them. One of the simplest methods of extracting funds is that of the 'Toll Gate' a simple point of entry and egress that can be used to tax both imports and exports alike. Just a start |
Subject:
Re: When did the term "free" first become applied to economics?
From: neilzero-ga on 02 Dec 2004 05:05 PST |
The word free in other languages, conncted to ecconomics and trade, likely was used thousands of years ago. IMHO, the use of the word free is propaganda. ie Balance of trade deficits are costly indirectly and demand some controls, rules etc that detract from freedom to trade. ie The USA cannot continue long term to pay trillions of dollars for foreign made goods and services while exporting billions of dollars in goods and services. Neil |
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