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Subject:
English Etymology
Category: Reference, Education and News > General Reference Asked by: narom-ga List Price: $10.00 |
Posted:
10 Jan 2005 12:20 PST
Expires: 10 Jan 2005 23:06 PST Question ID: 455131 |
What is the history of why "ph" is pronounced like an "f"? What is the origin of this and why didn't people switch the "ph" to "f" after a while? It's my understanding that words like "pharmacy" in Middle English were written as "farmacie" (which seems to make more sense, pronounciation-wise) but why the PH? Like wise, why not have ALL words in English spelled exactly like they sound? |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: English Etymology
From: pinkfreud-ga on 10 Jan 2005 12:28 PST |
This may answer a portion of your question: http://www.wordwizard.com/ch_forum/topic.asp?TOPIC_ID=6958 |
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