I am involved in the termination of a domestic partnership and am
trying to determine what is a fair division of the house settlement.
The house appraises out as approximately 155,000. I put $40,000 of my
own money down when we bought the house leaving a mortgage of $94,000.
I did not make house payments during the 3.5 yrs we have owned the
house. I don't
want to force sale of the house. What is fair for me to ask at the
sale of the house in 5 yrs...10 yrs?

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Clarification of Question by radleyboo-ga on 01 Feb 2005 12:47 PST

only $94,000 of the initial $136,000 was financed. i provided 40,000
of the 42,000 that went down on the house.

Here's a suggestion:

Let's say that the house will realise $150,000, after expenses,
against an initial investment of $134,000 - a profit of $16,000. Then
share this profit between you 50:50.

This same formula could be applied whenever the house is sold in 5, 10
or x years hence.

Of course, if one party (and not the other) should continue to live in
the house then this should be brought into the equation but I won't
offer a suggestion until you tell me what the future might hold.

Here's my follow-up:

Contributor     A     B

Cost           40     96    136

Realised

Oops! Hit the wrong key.

Here's my follow-up:

Contributor       A     B

Cost             40     96    136

Realised, nett                150

Gain                           14 shared 50:50

Receives         47    103        Out of which B repays Mortgage of whatever.

This seems fair to me but at the end of the day, it is what both
parties consider reasonable.