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Subject:
Statistics
Category: Science > Math Asked by: mathstats-ga List Price: $5.00 |
Posted:
07 Mar 2005 11:33 PST
Expires: 06 Apr 2005 12:33 PDT Question ID: 486243 |
Been bugging me for a while. Havent found much help online I have just 2 values X- 20.53 Y- 3.23 No more data. I need to write a valid sentence to somehow state that Y is STATISTICALLY lower than X. How would I go about proving and/or stating it? Thanks. | |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: hfshaw-ga on 07 Mar 2005 12:28 PST |
Unless you know the formal error or uncertainty associated with each of your two values, you cannot say whether Y is significantly (in the sense that word is used in statistics) smaller than X. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: mathstat-ga on 07 Mar 2005 12:35 PST |
What if I had 2 values for X, Y and Z X= 20.53 and 21.64 Y= 3.23 and 2.61 Z= 0.11 and 0.08 The problem is I dont know if the second set of values are entirely accurate, which is why I was hoping to get it with the 1st set.. But lets assume that I did have this second set of values. Now how do I statistically prove and/or state that Z<Y<X ? |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: eliteskillsdotcom-ga on 07 Mar 2005 12:41 PST |
20.53 what. % chance of succes? Standard deviations? Cost of 10 hamburgers and a soda? Etheopians it takes to equal Rose Anne's weight? How big is the sample size? Any z-index? "statistically smaller"? What exactly does that mean? "Statistically smaller" as a phrase only has relevance if there's a z-index, otherwise calling it smaller will suffice, unless you mean probability of it's occurance. If it's graphical rather than variable inputs (x and y), then we have to ask what does the y axis stand for and what does the x axis stand for to understand the point on the graph. It wouldn't make sense as a graph though because then one could never be bigger than another. x and y are statistically equal, given a sample size of two, because they both have the same chance of occuring. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 13:18 PST |
Ok... i would like to point out 1 problem. Your question is not well defined. For example a well defined question would be... "Is there evidence that the mean of X is lower than the mean of Y?" or "Is the mean of X statistically lower than the mean of Y?" And i should point you cant 'prove' anything with statistics... avoid that word. So first off... lower case letters tend to represent OUTCOMES so we have x- 20.53 y- 3.23 Now its quite obvious x<y... no statistical methods are required for that... but perhaps you want to discuss whether the mean of the random variable X is greater than the mean of the random variable Y. Asking if X>Y (the randomvariables) makes no sense. Now since you only have one observation of each variable you will not be able to make any parametric inference. So lets make some non parametric inference. Our null hypothesis is H0: median of X distribution = median of Y distribution. Our alternative hypothesis is H1: median of X distribution > median of Y distribution. Now under the null hypothesis we have P(X>Y)=a. We would reject H0 of course if X>Y and accept H0 if X<=Y. The two values of interest would be the power and level of significance. alpha = a beta > a These numbers would require information on the actual distributions but we know that 3/4>a>0 That is the best you can do. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 15:02 PST |
mathstats in response to your question for clarification Since you have your data you know that x>y>z, thats not supposed to be the question. The question has to be phrases in terms of the random variable... not the output. You actually have the numbers so if you simply want to say the output x is greater than the output y, you can. So assume you want to talk about the median of the distribution i will try and rephrase it. Assume the medain of the distribution of X and the distribution of Y are the same. Our criteria for deciding will be if the outcomes x and y follow x > y... Then we will have P(x>y) = a , where 0<a<3/4. So if we observed x>y (which we did) we reject the hypothesis that the medians are the same and conclude that the median of X is greater than the median of Y. Now the next part is of interest to statisticians. alpha (a) represents how often you will be wrong when null hypothesis (the medians are the same) is true. So if a is 0.5 you will wrongly assume that the median of X is greater than the median of Y 50% of the time. Beta (B) represents how often you will be right when the alternative hypothesis is true (median of X is greater than median of Y) |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 15:04 PST |
Do you actually want me to write a sentence? |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 15:23 PST |
How about this... Based on the data we have and using a non parametric procedure using the medians. We can be at least 25% confident that the mean of X is greater than the mean of Y. (25% is low... standard lowest is 90-95%, but since u have one number... thats all you can do) |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 15:24 PST |
Sorry that should be MEDIAN Based on the data we have and using a non parametric procedure using the medians. We can be at least 25% confident that the MEDIAN of X is greater than the MEDIAN of Y. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 16:20 PST |
I stand corrected... you can not make a confidence statement... i incorrectly thought that 0<a<3/4... but constructed a situation where 3/4<a<1... So you can say the same thing but make no confidence statement... which of course renders the whole thing pointless... but well... it is only 1 data point. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 16:25 PST |
So rethinking the whole problem... i must say i believe you CAN NOT make a valid statement simply with 1 data point without some prior knowledge of the distributions. You can say that x > y gives some evidence to say the MEAN or MEDIAN of X > Y... but you can make no confidence statement... thus makes the remarks pointless. However if you had to make a statement, simply say something like... and this will be my final answer GIVEN THE DATA AT HAND, IT IS ONLY POSSIBLE TO SAY THAT THERE IS SOME EVIDENCE THAT THERE IS A POSITIVE SHIFT IN SOME SENSE, IN THE DISTRIBUTION OF X RELATIVE TO THE DISTRIBUTION OF Y. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 07 Mar 2005 23:18 PST |
Ok... after not being able to sleep and trying to remember my non parametrics course i took 4 years ago.i will correct some statements... btw users should be able to delete comments... how lame You CAN make inference about the MEDIAN if you make this assumption. That the distribution of X and Y are similar up to a horizontal shift... If you assume this then P(x<y)=1/2 under the null hypothesis. So your sentence could be... Under the assumption that the distribution of X and Y are identical up to a shift of delta (x-y) then we can test the hypothesis H0: delta = 0 vs H1: delta > 0 by accepting H0 if x<=y and rejecting H1 if x>y. We have that the probability of type 1 error (wrongly rejecting H0 when its true) is 1/2 and the power of the test is greater than 1/2 but depends on delta and the distributions. So in our case we can say that the median of X is greater than the median of Y with confidence 50% under the previously mentioned assumption. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 08 Mar 2005 07:38 PST |
1 more comment... you need to assume continuous distributions... otherwise your back to square one... so you are assuming continuous identical distributions up to median shift |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: mathstats-ga on 08 Mar 2005 23:53 PST |
volterwd-ga: This is GREAT!! Thanks so much... Only I'm really not that great in statistics.. I know math to some extent but am challenged much when it comes to stats.. So if I have A=20, B=10, C=7, D=1, with your non-parametric statements, is it right for me to safely conclude that we can be at least 50% confident that the median of A is greater than the mean of B and the median of B is greater than the median of C and the median of C is greater than the median of D and the median of A is greater than the median of D. To state a valid statement, I would therefore have to say that "Under the assumption that the continous distribution of a,b,c and d are identical up to a shift of delta, we can test the hypothesis H0: delta =0 vs H1: delta > 0 by accepting H0 if a<=b and rejecting H1 if a>b. Therefore the probability of type 1 error is 1/2 and the power of the test is greater than 1/2. The median of A is therefore greater than the median of B (or C, or D) with confidence of 50%." |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: mathstats-ga on 09 Mar 2005 00:12 PST |
volterwd-ga one more question. say if i was measuring weights of 3 students in a class, student a, student b and student c over a period of say 1 semester Student A goes from 150 pounds to 130 pounds to 120 pounds to 100 pounds to 98 pounds Student B goes from 147 pounds to 122 pounds to 120 pounds to 118 pounds to 116 pounds Student C goes from 142 pounds to 157 pounds to 169 pounds to 172 pounds to 190 pounds How do I validly (statistically) state that a) Student A statistically decreased from 150 --> 130--> 120--> 100--> 98 b) Decrease in Student A was more significant that Student B c) Student C statistically increased from 142 to 190 pounds Finally how do I thank you for your GREAT help? I wish you could at least accept this money posted here. |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 11 Mar 2005 16:32 PST |
with regards to the ABCD... yeah its 50%... (which is low btw) thats only for PAIRWISE comparisons... with regards to the weights... These really dont seem like statistical problems... its quite obvious they gained a large portion of weight... but lets do this a statistical way for A (and C)... if the person wasnt losing weight... ie... their weight was just fluctuating.. you would expect their weight to go up just as much as down correct? so lets assume that the weight loss/gain is purely random... then what is the chance of losing weight 4 times in a row? well its about 1/32... (it would probably be smaller since when your losing weight it should be harder to keep losing) with regards to B... you need to define losing weight better... as a fraction or by total lbs? So we have a test that the person is losing weight... null hypothesis is random fluctuation in weight... alternative is losing Basically we are using a non-parametric test called the sign test... (you could use a signed rank test but since they are all going down they will give the same result) So the probability of down down down down when fluctuating should be about 1/32... (most likely less) and this is the a value i was talking about before... so this is 0.03125... which at a standard level of 5% says that there is significant evidence that they are losing weight... the same goes for D just change down and losing to up and gaining... |
Subject:
Re: Statistics
From: volterwd-ga on 11 Mar 2005 16:38 PST |
bad math make 1/2^4 = 1/16 = 0.0625 still significant at 10%... should be good enough especially considering like i said it should be smaller then that number |
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