Hello Patrice29-ga,
First, please let me tell you that I?m a native Spanish speaker from Argentina.
In this case, the word ?tuvo? remains the past of ?tener?, as you
already knew it; ?to have?, with its possessive sense with a
figurative nuance here. Maybe the doubt comes from the fact that the
subject of the sentence is omitted, as very frequently happens in
Spanish (we call it ?sujeto tácito? ?tacit subject). Thus, perhaps you
took it as an impersonal sentence, where the verb could refer to a
situation, and so associated it with ?hubo?, translatable as ?there
was?. Actually, the subject of the sentence you ask about is ?he?
(Ronaldo), and the complete translation of your quotation would be:
?In fact, *he* had an incident with two fans who insulted him...?
Actually, I can?t think of any context in which the verb ?tener? in
Spanish would mean ?haber?. Conversely, the Latin root for ?haber?,
?habere?, does mean ?to have?, sense that you can still find in the
substantive ?haber? meaning ?credits? (as opposed to ?debits?), in
other words, ?what you *have*?. Interestingly, both English and
Spanish use as auxiliaries for complex past tenses, verbs that mean
-currently in the former and anciently in the latter- ?to have?
(?have? ? ?haber?). Moreover, their similarity suggests a common root,
despite ?have? comes from old English ?habban?
(http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=have ), and ?haber? from
Latin ?habere?.
I hope this answer has addressed satisfactorily your question. Please
feel free to ask for clarification if needed. Thanks for asking.
Regards,
Guillermo-ga |