|
|
Subject:
Implicit Differentiation
Category: Science > Math Asked by: herkdrvr-ga List Price: $2.00 |
Posted:
28 Mar 2005 05:38 PST
Expires: 27 Apr 2005 06:38 PDT Question ID: 501335 |
Okay...this is probably going to come down to simplification, but I am stumped. This is directly from the book "Ordinary Differential Equations" by Tenenbaum & Pollard. (Page 25) The question is to test whether: (a) f(x,y) = x^3 + y^3 - 3xy = 0, -infinity < x < infinity is an implicit solution of (b) F(x,y,y') = (y^2 - x)y' - y + x^2 = 0, -infinity < x < infinity Their solution is to differentiate implicitly to arrive at: (c) 3x^2 + 3y^2y' - 3xy - 3y = 0 The next sentence begins..."Since (c) now agrees with (b), we know that the slope of the function..." I just don't see how the solution (c) agrees with (b). If I multiply terms in (b) I get an equation similiar to (c) but without the coefficient. What's the deal? Thanks in advance. Regards, Herkdrvr | |
| |
|
|
Subject:
Re: Implicit Differentiation
Answered By: elmarto-ga on 28 Mar 2005 17:52 PST Rated: |
Hi herkdrvr! Actually, (b) and (c) simplify down to the same equation. When multiplying the terms in (b), you get the following equation: (b) x^2 + y^2y' - xy' - y = 0 The equation (c) is: (c) 3x^2 + 3y^2y' - 3xy' - 3y = 0 But taking 3 as common factor, we get: (c) 3(x^2 + y^2y' - xy' - y) = 0 Now, dividing both sides by 3: (c) x^2 + y^2y' - xy' - y = 0 So the book is correct when it says that (b) and (c) agree. I hope this helps! Best wishes, elmarto |
herkdrvr-ga
rated this answer:
and gave an additional tip of:
$1.00
The light bulb turned on! Of course...divide by 3! I'm sure I'll have more questions as I go through this book. Thank you for your swift reply. Regards, Herkdrvr |
|
There are no comments at this time. |
If you feel that you have found inappropriate content, please let us know by emailing us at answers-support@google.com with the question ID listed above. Thank you. |
Search Google Answers for |
Google Home - Answers FAQ - Terms of Service - Privacy Policy |