The net present value of the after-tax cash flows associated with the
lease must result in a 14% rate of return on the lease, meaning that
after purchasing the machine, LRU must net $200,000(0.14) or $28,000.
In Years 0-3, LRU buys the machine for $200,000 and receives the after
tax lease payment net of depreciation of L-(L-$40,000)*0.4 because the
lease is paid at the beginning of the year and the machine depreciates
during that year, generating a tax deduction.
In Year 4, LRU receives the after tax lease payment of only L-L*0.4
because the machine is already fully depreciated.
In Year 5, LRU receives the after tax salvage value of $35,000*0.6
that is a taxable gain because the machine was fully depreciated
earlier
Therefore, using the after tax rate of return as the discount value,
the net present value formula looks like this:
$28,000 = -$200,000 + L-(L-$40,000)*0.4+
[L-(L-$40,000)*0.4][1/(1.14)^1]+L-[(L-$40,000)*0.4][1/(1.14)^2]+L-[(L-$40,000)*0.4][1/(1.14)^3]+L-[L*0.4][1/(1.14)^4]+$35,000*0.6[1/(1.14)^5].
$228,000 = 0.6L-$16,000 + (0.6L-$16,000 )*.8772 + (0.6L-$16,000
)*.7695 + (0.6L-$16,000 )*.6750 + (0.6L-$16,000 )*.5921 + $18177.90.
$228,000 = 2.348L - $62620.8 + $18177.90
L = $116,018.06 (some rounding error is generated by not carrying more
digits of the time value of money reduction factor).
Sincerely,
Wonko
For information regarding the NPV formula, see:
"Primer on the Time Value of Money"
http://pages.stern.nyu.edu/~adamodar/New_Home_Page/PVPrimer/pvprimer.htm |