Hi!!
Lease Scenario:
For each year we have the following:
Payments (Pi) of $25,200
Because the lease payments are tax-deductible at a rate of 30%, there
are a recovery from taxes of ($25,200 * 0.30) = $7,560 .
At the end of the third year there is a payment of $5,000 (the use of
the option to purchase the asset).
the cash outflows for each year are:
CF1 = -$25,200 + $7,560 = -$17,640
CF2 = -$25,200 + $7,560 = -$17,640
CF3 = -$25,200 + $7,560 -$5,000 = -$22,640
At the after-tax cost of debt (A) of 7% we have that:
CF1 CF2 CF3
PV = --------- + ---------- + ---------- =
(1 + A)^1 (1 + A)^2 (1 + A)^3
= (-$16,485.98) + (-$15,407.46) + (-$18,480.98) =
= -$50,374.42
-----------------------
Purchase Scenario:
For each year we have:
Payment (Pi) of $25,844 .
Mantenaince Costs of $1,800 .
Depreciation (MACRS 3-Years recovery period):
The MACRS 3-Years recovery period is a variation on the Declining
Balance with conversion to Straight Line method: it uses 200%
declining balance method but it changes to straight-line when that
method provides an equal or greater deduction.
Straight line depreciation estimates a depreciation for each of the 3
years of $20,000, then MACRS 3-Years recovery period results in:
D1 = 2 * $60,000/3 = $40,000 (>$20,000)
D2 = 2 * ($60,000 - $40,000)/3 = $13,333 (<$20,000) ==> D2 = $20,000
D3 = 0
For references on this depreciation method see the "Double Declining
Balance Depreciation Method": (see pages 1 and 2)
http://beginnersinvest.about.com/cs/investinglessons/l/bldbldeclinebal.htm
Since depreciation is tax deductible at a tax rate of 30%, we will
have depreciation tax credits (DTC) of (0.30 * Di) each year:
DTC1 = $12,000
DTC2 = $6,000
DTC3 = $0
The loan payments are composed of a principal payment of $20,000 and
an interest payment of $5,844 at the end of each year. At this point
we are focused in the interests' tax credits (ITC) that result in a
value of (0.30 * $5,844) for each year.
ITC1 = ITC2 = ITC3 = $1,753.20
In this scenario the cash outflows are:
CF1 = -$25,844 - $1,800 + $12,000 + $1,753.20 = -$13,890.80
CF2 = -$25,844 - $1,800 + $6,000 + $1,753.20 = -$19,890.80
CF3 = -$25,844 - $1,800 + $0 + $1,753.20 = -$25,890.80
At the after-tax cost of debt (A) of 7% we have that:
CF1 CF2 CF3
PV = --------- + ---------- + ---------- =
(1 + A)^1 (1 + A)^2 (1 + A)^3
= (-$12,982.06) + (-$17,373.40) + (-$21,134.61) =
= -$51,490.07
------------------------
The PVs are both negative but differs in magnitude; their sign are
reflecting PVs of expenditures, in this situation the shortest
negative PV is the better option. In this case is the lease option. We
have just found that it is less expensive to lease the equipment than
purchase it.
I hope that this helps you. Feel free to request for a clarification
if you find something unclear.
Regrds,
livioflores-ga |