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Subject:
question about the Fed and open-market transactions
Category: Business and Money > Finance Asked by: gnossie-ga List Price: $20.00 |
Posted:
28 May 2005 20:14 PDT
Expires: 27 Jun 2005 20:14 PDT Question ID: 526814 |
Does it cost the Fed a whole bunch of money every time it conducts open-market transactions to reduce or increase the money supply? It seems like it would. If it does, who pays? The Fed itself or taxpayers? Here's my thinking: Either the Fed wants to increase the money supply, in which case it will buy bonds from the public. Or it wants to decrease the money supply, in which case it will sell bonds to the public. In either case, it seems to me, the only way they can make the buying or selling of bonds palatable to the investment community is by monkeying with the interest rate. BUT... naturally the interest rate is made appealing and advantageous to the public by exactly the same amount it is disadvantageous to the Fed. So, for example, if the Fed wants to sell a pile of bonds, they will raise the interest rate. The public gets more money. Have I got this all wrong, or am I basically on the ball? Because if I'm right, open-market transactions must cost SOMEBODY billions of dollars every time the Fed orders them. But who pays? |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: question about the Fed and open-market transactions
From: elwtee-ga on 28 May 2005 21:37 PDT |
you have a couple of basic flaws in your market theory which may be causing you some distress. first the fed does not deal with the public. open-market transactions are conducted by the federal reserve bank of new york with other banks. second, when the fed sets monetary policy and makes a decision to either add or subtract reserves from the system there is no negotiation, they just do it. the fed makes its purchases or sales through a bank and either adds or subtracts reserves as necessary in the bank's reserves account. the bank then either has more or less money available to lend. that in turn tends to either increase or decrease interest rates, capital spending and general economic activity. what is most directly being effected is the fed funds rate which is an interbank market. |
Subject:
Re: question about the Fed and open-market transactions
From: gnossie-ga on 29 May 2005 00:28 PDT |
hmmmm. that's interesting. thanks for your comment. but now I'm unclear on a related point. when you say that the fed "just does it" and that there's no negotiation, which banks exactly is the Fed doing this to? All banks evenly? Or merely to the banks directly overseen by the Fed? Because, from the affected bank's point of view, this seems pretty unfair. Here they have all this cash to play with, then the Fed just steps in an unilaterally confiscates it, replacing it with bonds which the bank cannot use as money? It seems like the banks would be pretty pissed off, unless they get something out of this deal I'm not seeing. Why would they submit to having billions of dollars of investable cash taken from them without any negotiation? What happens, for example, if this would put the bank's reserves below the required level? Are they now forced to borrow money from the Fed to get their reserves back up to the legal level? This would seem to be costing them money. What are they getting out of it? |
Subject:
Re: question about the Fed and open-market transactions
From: financeeco-ga on 29 May 2005 07:43 PDT |
First off, the Fed doesn't really have control over interest rates. Go to http://bonds.yahoo.com/rates.html for a graphic of the yield curve. The Fed sets by fiat the overnight Federal Funds rate... this is the only rate directly set by the Fed. This rate basically only affects very short-term debt. So the Fed can control the short end of the yield curve pretty easily, but the Fed's market power is too weak compared to everyone else on the longer end of the yield curve. For longer-term rates, all the Fed can do is "jawbone" the market. As far as open market operations, keep in mind that the Fed has hundreds of billions of dollars at its disposal. 1) The Fed can print new dollar bills within reason 2) The Fed receives interest payments from the US Treasury on all of the T-securities it holds; the vast majority of that interest is refunded right back to the Treasury, but the Fed can use it to finance any open market operations. At the same time, the Fed pays no interest on the deposits of member banks that it holds. When targeting the money supply, the Fed doesn't care about interest rates. It just wants to add/remove $X billion in the market. Since it doesn't have to "make a profit" with its operations, it just does whatever's necessary to reach the $X target... including buying above the market price or selling below the market price. The Fed will make sure the necessary profit incentive is there for the banks in order for the Fed to get the outcome it desires. The Open Markets desk is in New York City. Banks are registered with the Fed and do business on an electronic bid/ask system. You have to be a big boy to play, but the system is fair among the big boys. These aren't the retail banking arms of the banks, so they're not worried about reserve requirements. |
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