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Subject:
Economics: Balance Of Payments
Category: Business and Money > Economics Asked by: celtic_rice-ga List Price: $5.00 |
Posted:
15 Sep 2005 12:05 PDT
Expires: 15 Oct 2005 12:05 PDT Question ID: 568434 |
I came across this article (http://www.stlouisfed.org/news/speeches/2001/04_10_01.html) when looking up figures on the US trade deficit. Believing myself fairly well informed on the accounting mechanisms of the Balance of Payments, I was baffled by two assertions in Mr. Pooles speech: 1. "Assume that a foreign firm decides to build or expand a production facility in the United States...In each of these cases, foreign residents are increasing their claims on assets in the United States. In terms of balance of payments accounting, these transactions would tend to increase the U.S. capital and financial account surplus, which, in turn, means that the U.S. current account deficit would increase." My understanding is that this FDI transaction would affect the capital and financial account in the following manner: A debit, due to the inflow of foreign exchange assets, and a credit to record the FDI investment. Therefore, the effect on the capital and financial account is neutral as the debit offsets the credit. How can this "lead" to a current account deficit? Am I missing something? 2. "A return to smaller current account deficits requires a rise in saving and/or a fall in investment as a share of gross domestic product." I know that mathematically I can show that CA = S-I, but conceptually, how will this lessen the deficit...what is the unexpressed assumption here? |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: Economics: Balance Of Payments
From: oroblram-ga on 16 Sep 2005 12:53 PDT |
The U.S. current account deficit is my speciality... :-) I'll answer ("comment") on the second issue. When you consume more than you earn, you lend money from the bank. When nations operate this way, they accumulate current account deficits. In essence, a CA deficit is a sign that a country's consumption is higher than its savings, so it has to attract money from abroad. The prime reason for the U.S. CA deficit is that private savings are at a record low. In order to reduce the deficit, consumers need to consume less (=save more); but if we talk about firms, they do not consume but invest. It's just a question of definition: in national accounting all firms' expenses are counted as investments. So higher savings and a fall in investment are actually the same. And just as you can reduce the amount you need to borrow from the bank to finance your expenses by cutting back spending, the U.S. can reduce its CA deficit if its consumers start saving more. I hope this clarifies this issue... PM PS: In case you get really interested in this topic you could consider looking at the study "The Unsustainable US Current Account Position Revisited" by M. Obstfeld and K. Rogoff. You can download it from here: http://www.nber.org/papers/w10869 |
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