Dear mmmelly-ga;
Thank you for allowing me an opportunity to answer your interesting
question. Let me start by reminding you of our disclaimer that says we
cannot provide legal advice in this forum. What I am about to tell you
is merely the result of research about a matter of published law for
you to consider and consult an attorney about. Anything here that
might be construed as advice...isn?t ? it?s merely my unlicensed
opinion (which is the best we can do under the circumstances).
As for your question...in some case you are right; cashing a check
does indeed imply agreement. It is, however more complicated than that
(as I?m sure you?ve probably guessed already).
In statutory jargon ?implied agreement? you are referring to is
technically known as an ?ACCORD AND SATISFACTION?. Many states
recognize UNIFORM COMMERCIAL CODE (UCC) 3-311 ?ACCORD AND SATISFACTION
BY USE OF INSTRUMENT? as their basis of law.
UNIFORM COMMERCIAL CODE
3-311 ?ACCORD AND SATISFACTION BY USE OF INSTRUMENT?
http://www.law.cornell.edu/ucc/search/display.html?terms=3-311&url=/ucc/3/article3.htm#s3-311
However, don?t let the phrase ?uniform law? confuse you:
?The phrase "Uniform Laws" can be misleading. Upon approval by the
National Conference a Uniform Law is not law anywhere in the United
States. It is simply a legislative proposal addressed to fifty state
legislatures. During the history of the Conference, roughly half its
proposals have not been adopted by a single state.?
UNIFORM LAWS
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uniform/uniform.html
Keep all this in mind because we?ll revisit this code briefly in a moment?
California does have it?s own civil code that addresses ?accord and
satisfaction? and fortunately it?s actually much simpler than the
UCC?s recommended version. California Civil Code 1526 states:
?(a) Where a claim is disputed or unliquidated and a check or draft is
tendered by the debtor in settlement thereof in full discharge of the
claim, and the words "payment in full" or other words of similar
meaning are notated on the check or draft, the acceptance of the check
or draft does not constitute an accord and satisfaction if the
creditor protests against accepting the tender in full payment by
striking out or otherwise deleting that notation or if the acceptance
of the check or draft was inadvertent or without knowledge of the
notation.
(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the acceptance of a check or
draft constitutes an accord and satisfaction if a check or draft is
tendered pursuant to a composition or extension agreement between a
debtor and its creditors, and pursuant to that composition or
extension agreement, all creditors of the same class are accorded
similar treatment, and the creditor receives the check or draft with
knowledge of the restriction. A creditor shall be conclusively
presumed to have knowledge of the restriction if a creditor either:
(1) Has, previous to the receipt of the check or draft, executed a
written consent to the composition or extension agreement.
(2) Has been given, not less than 15 days nor more than 90 days prior
to receipt of the check or draft, notice, in writing, that a check or
draft will be tendered with a restrictive endorsement and that
acceptance and cashing of the check or draft will constitute an accord
and satisfaction.
(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the acceptance of a check or
draft by a creditor constitutes an accord and satisfaction when the
check or draft is issued pursuant to or in conjunction with a release
of a claim.
(d) For the purposes of paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), mailing the
notice by first-class mail, postage prepaid, addressed to the address
shown for the creditor on the debtor's books or such other address as
the creditor may designate in writing constitutes notice.?
CALIFORNIA CIVIL CODE 1526
http://www.aroundthecapitol.com/code/code.html?sec=civ&codesection=1521-1526
Now, back to that Uniform Commercial Code thing...
UCC is a bit harder to interpret but it says essentially the same
thing. The fact is that California adopted UCC 3-311 in 1992 without
repealing California Civil Code 1526. This may be important to you
because you now have two ?wordings? of essentially the same law to
support your argument that what you had with your landlord, by virtue
of his acceptance and cashing of your check and notation thereon, was
an accord and satisfaction by use of an instrument. You may want to
speak with an attorney about this because, like I said, we can?t
provide legal advice in this forum.
So, clearly IF the statutory requirements described above are met by
you and were not met by your landlord, you may very well have a valid
complaint. It may be a defense however on the part of your landlord
that you were contractually bound to pay x-amount of rent or risk
being evicted, regardless of the circumstances, if in fact that is the
case in your contract. I don?t know that of course, but you understand
what I?m saying, right? If the lease requires you to pay x-amount
monthly and does not specifically make provisions for a reduction in
rent due to a reduction of services, he MIGHT be able to claim that
you failed to abide by the terms of the contract. In theory this COULD
render your claim of accord and satisfaction a moot point What your
landlord has a right to claim as his defense however is DEFINITELY
something you?d need to see an attorney about just to be on the safe
side. Especially if you plan to invest the time and money into filing
a civil action over this.
In my personal (unlicensed) opinion it?s hard to say how a court would
rule because both of you ? to some extent - failed to act in
accordance with the law:
Where YOU erred (in my opinion):
Cal. Civ Code 1526 Paragraph (a) states that the check tendered must
have the words "PAYMENT IN FULL" or OTHER WORDS OF SIMILAR MEANING
notated on it.
-*-It would be up to a court to rule if your notation ?reduction of
services? qualifies as ?other words of similar meaning? in lieu of the
words ?payment in full?.
Where HE erred (in my opinion):
Paragraph (a) states ??the acceptance of the check or draft does not
constitute an accord and satisfaction if the creditor protests against
accepting the tender in full payment by striking out or otherwise
deleting that notation??
-*-He clearly accepted the check without protest (at least initially)
and did not strike the notation, however, if he's clever, he COULD
claim that ?the acceptance of the check or draft was inadvertent or
without knowledge of the notation.?
See what I mean?
I fully agree that ?the principle of the thing? is always important,
but if I may be so bold as to offer constructive advice (which you may
take or leave) it may be prudent to sacrifice the $100 ?and? your
principles rather than risking having to live in your car as winter
approaches...But to each his own.
I hope you find that my research exceeds your expectations. If you
have any questions about my research please post a clarification
request prior to rating the answer. Otherwise, I welcome your rating
and your final comments and I look forward to working with you again
in the near future. Thank you for bringing your question to us.
Best regards;
Tutuzdad ? Google Answers Researcher
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