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Subject:
individual dna variation
Category: Science > Biology Asked by: brick66-ga List Price: $2.00 |
Posted:
01 Dec 2005 04:04 PST
Expires: 31 Dec 2005 04:04 PST Question ID: 599944 |
How much nuclear DNA within an individual's cells is "different"? I often see percentages quoted for differences between species and organisms but have never seen anything for within an individual except a statement that each cell contains dna for every part of an individual which implies all of an individual's cells have the same DNA. I understand a number of mutation and copying error mechanisms exist so this led me to ask what percentage of an individuals DNA varies at birth and over time. |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: individual dna variation
From: pforcelli-ga on 01 Dec 2005 10:26 PST |
Hey; I'm not sure I'm understanding your question. Are you asking what percentage of DNA in one cell varies from the DNA in another cell? If so, think of it this way, we have about 3billion base pairs in our genome The error rate in DNA synthesis approximately 1 in a billion after proofreading. If you have a 3 basepair change every time a cell divide... So some cells will have a greater difference than otherrs, but an average of 10^-9% variation. I haven't really thought this through, but that seems logical. Mikewa, Dops? Any thoughts/comments? I'm not a geneticist. |
Subject:
Re: individual dna variation
From: pforcelli-ga on 01 Dec 2005 10:31 PST |
Two other quick thoughts, those numbers don't take into account T or B lymphocytes which undergo somatic cell hypermutation, nor do they take into account haploid cells (spermatozoa or oocytes) |
Subject:
Re: individual dna variation
From: mikewa-ga on 02 Dec 2005 04:46 PST |
I think pforcelli has got it right. Although cells arise through mitosis (other than gametes)the spontaneous errors in replication will tend to produce slightly differnt results each time. You also need to add in the mutation rate due to chemical and physical factors. The result is that probaly most cells in your body have a unique base sequence. However, since only a very small % of the DNA is coding for proteins, this will not mean that every cell looks/behaves differently. |
Subject:
Re: individual dna variation
From: brick66-ga on 02 Dec 2005 07:14 PST |
Thanks, you have helped to quantify and clarify my question - Within an organism, each cell has nuclear dna, some of which is significant in that cell's form and function, so within those exons how much variation exists? A side question - When numbers are quoted that humans are 99.9% the same or humans are 9X% the same as chimps or mushrooms, is this referring to only to DNA that codes for proteins? Based on your comments, this is what I understand now, the genome that would be produced by each cell is different by the accumulated mutation rate of its predecessors within the organism and any environmental (chemical and physical) driven changes. Every cell replication from the gamete produces ~3 base changes (1/10^9 rate * 3e9 bases). Also I understand that the rate is higher due to the chemical,physical, and hypermutation. So I figure that the 47 doublings from the single starting cell produces >~1e14 single base errors in the 7e13 cells indicating that most cells are very slightly different from the starting cell. Somewhere I read 47 doublings occur from single cell to birth and using excel, this computes to 7e13 cells with 1e14 errors. I understand that the majority of these differences would be within introns since introns are the majority of the bases so these changes apparently don't change form or function of the cells. There does seem (to me) to be significant variation here. Would this very slight variation be a cellular evolutionary mechanism within an organism? I could envision occasionally these errors could create a cell replicative advantage when they happened within exons if the error was an improvement. Or perhaps the error could create a disadvantage and the cell would terminate instead of replicating the disadvantaged DNA. If there was an cellular replicative advantage could it create an organism reproductive advantage? How would the cells with a beneficial mutation communicate this advantage to the reproductive cells for organism evolution? Thanks for your thoughts. |
Subject:
Re: individual dna variation
From: pforcelli-ga on 04 Dec 2005 10:08 PST |
A side question - When numbers are quoted that humans are 99.9% the same or humans are 9X% the same as chimps or mushrooms, is this referring to only to DNA that codes for proteins? --> To the best of my knowledge: No. This is talking about total genomic DNA I understand that the majority of these differences would be within introns since introns are the majority of the bases so these changes apparently don't change form or function of the cells. --> There are other stretches of non-coding DNA which could be effected, and a change in any place is capable (in theory) of producing a change in protein expression - it can effect packaging of DNA, it can effect regulatory regions... There does seem (to me) to be significant variation here. --> I suppose it depends on your definition of significant. Would this very slight variation be a cellular evolutionary mechanism within an organism? I could envision occasionally these errors could create a cell replicative advantage when they happened within exons if the error was an improvement. --> I think you thinking of this in the wrong way. The variation is the means by which evolution occurs. However, this isn't going to make even the slightest difference unless it occurs early enough in development to effect all gametes, or if it occurs during gametogenesis. Or perhaps the error could create a disadvantage and the cell would terminate instead of replicating the disadvantaged DNA. --> Don't think of individual cells in terms of disadgantaged, certainly there are mechanisms to induce apoptosis if there is an unrepareable error in DNA synthesis. The cell could certainly die if a vital enzyme was made inactive by a mutation. The same can apply in reverse, this is the mechanism of cancer, a cell undergoes mutations, allowing it to replicate ad infinitum. If there was an cellular replicative advantage could it create an organism reproductive advantage? --> It would have to be very early in development for the change to effect enough cells to make any sort of differnece in overall organismal functioning. How would the cells with a beneficial mutation communicate this advantage to the reproductive cells for organism evolution? --> The cannot. 100% Cannot. There is no mechanism by which one cell tells another cell to change its dna in a specific and directed way. What you are suggesting is something akin to what Lamarck believed. When you think of this, remember evolution isn't planned for in cells, organisms, or anything else. It is chance changes in genotype and phenotype which, will have an impact on reproductive viability in a given niche. I think i've done all of that justice, again, comments... |
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