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Subject:
federal income taxes
Category: Business and Money > Economics Asked by: haplo127-ga List Price: $10.00 |
Posted:
31 Aug 2002 09:29 PDT
Expires: 30 Sep 2002 09:29 PDT Question ID: 60504 |
Is a citizen of the United States of America legally obligated to pay federal income tax? What does the Internal Revenue Code say about it? |
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Subject:
Re: federal income taxes
Answered By: sublime1-ga on 31 Aug 2002 13:01 PDT Rated: ![]() |
haplo127... There have been many spurious attempts to answer this question in the negative, based on what seem to be simple concepts, such as the idea that the term "shall pay" which is everywhere in the tax laws (see the search results following), is actually phrased in legal terminology which should be interpreted to mean: "MAY pay", rather than "WILL pay". ://www.google.com/search?hl=en&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-8&q=%22income+tax%22+%22shall+pay%22 The following page has an extensive list of such concepts: http://www.ottoskinner.com/b-loophole.html "Chapter 7 - WHY SOME PEOPLE GO TO JAIL - page 189" "Flawed arguments." "1. W-4 form. 2. Tax is direct tax. 3. Sixteenth Amendment not properly ratified. 4. Fifth Amendment. 5. Wages are not "income". 6. "Shall" means "may". 7. Tax is voluntary. 8. Not an "employee" as defined. 9. 6020(b). 10. Term "includes". State Citizen. What is a "return" ? 11. Public Salary Tax Act. 12. Zero tax returns. "income" means corporate profit. 13. OMB Numbers. 14. Zip Codes. 15. Not Positive Law. 16. 6331. 17. Victory Tax. 18. Lawful Dollars." The IRS Tax Code states, regarding individuals, for example: (c) "Unmarried individuals (other than surviving spouses and heads of households)" "There is hereby imposed on the taxable income of every individual (other than a surviving spouse as defined in section 2(a) or the head of a household as defined in section 2(b)) who is not a married individual (as defined in section 7703) a tax determined in accordance with the following table:" (table follows) ...from the searchable Tax Code, courtesy of John Walker, who maintains the FourmiLab site: http://www.fourmilab.ch/ at: http://www.fourmilab.ch/ustax/www/t26-A-1-A-I-1.html This seems pretty straightforward. However there is one source for information on this topic which is based on elaborate inquiry into the bases of the income tax. The research done is thoroughly documented, and, to a large degree, tested by the author, who has challenged the IRS to invalidate his findings. His name is Larken Rose, and his website, and the downloads available there will take you a fair amount of time to digest, since his findings are based on a comprehensive analysis of some very complex laws. A summary, from his front page: http://www.taxableincome.net/ states the following: "'Conventional wisdom', even when provably incorrect, is a very powerful thing. People often find it uncomfortable to question things they have always taken for granted. The sky is blue; one plus two equals three; and most Americans owe federal income taxes. Everyone knows that." "Contrary to what "everyone knows," the truth of the matter is this: Congress could not, and did not, impose a tax on the income of most Americans, because of the strict limits on federal power imposed by the Constitution. Instead, they imposed a far more limited income tax, applicable primarily to income from certain types of international and foreign commerce, but wrote the law in such a way that it could easily be misinterpreted. The law itself is perfectly valid and constitutional; it is simply being misrepresented and misapplied by the tax professionals and government officials. As a result, tens of millions of Americans now make payments to the IRS based on the false assumption that they are just paying "their taxes." In reality they are being defrauded via the myth that the income of most Americans is taxable." "Of course such a claim at first sounds absurd, but the evidence does not lie. Here is a very brief summary of the issue:" 1) The federal income tax is imposed upon "taxable income" (not all income). 2) "Taxable income" generally means "gross income" minus deductions." 3) "Gross income" is generally defined as "all income from whatever source derived," including compensation, interest, rents, dividends, etc" "Up to this point, the tax professionals agree. It is what comes next that they are either unaware of, or unwilling to accept when they see it in plain English in the law books." 4) Certain sections of the law specifically describe in which situations income from inside the United States is taxable." 5) While those sections show income to be taxable when it derives from certain kinds of international and foreign commerce, they do not show the income of United States citizens living and working only in the 50 states to be taxable." "Amazingly, points 4 and 5 above are specifically and repeatedly stated in the federal income tax regulations, yet most tax professionals simply refuse to believe it. As if that were not bad enough, there is yet another, completely independent way that the regulations prove the truth." 6) The regulations show that the types of income listed in the general definition of "gross income" (such as compensation, interest, rent, etc.) are in some situations excluded for federal income tax purposes." 7) The income tax regulations give a specific list of those types of income which are not exempt (i.e. which are taxable), and while that list includes income derived from certain types of international and foreign commerce, the income of the average American is not listed as being non-exempt (i.e., taxable)." There is link to a free download of the full report, available in .doc .pdf, and .zip formats, or you can view it in your browser, from this page: http://www.taxableincome.net/report/index.html It is a well-written and researched exploration of the origins of the income tax, and the misconceptions which have come to surround it. It is fascinating reading for anyone interested in history and the law. There is also a video, available for sale, which adds the benefits of visual aids to the explanation of this complex topic: http://www.theft-by-deception.com/ Of course, as a researcher, I cannot recommend following a particular course of action, or provide legal advice. I can only point you to resources and suggest that you decide for yourself. Searches done, via Google: "income tax" "shall pay" ://www.google.com/search?hl=en&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-8&q=%22income+tax%22+%22shall+pay%22 "shall means may" ://www.google.com/search?num=50&hl=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-8&q=%22shall+means+may%22 If you need further assistance before rating this answer, please feel free to post a request for clarification. sublime1-ga |
haplo127-ga
rated this answer:![]() sublime, i do appreciate your objectivity. :) however, i personally believe that #8 "not an employee as defined" is correct. even if all the others have giant, gaping holes in them, the fact remains that "income tax" applys to foreign corporations, "employees" of the federal government, and nationals only. once again, though, i appreciate the objective, open-minded answer. richard. i see and comprehend the court case u quoted. it doesn't apply to the "not an employee as defined" argument. all these...'gross income' all 'gains, profits, and income derived ... from professions, vocations, trades, businesses, commerce, or sales, or dealings in property, whether real or personal, growing out of the ownership or use of or interest in such property; also from interest, rent, dividends, securities, or the transaction of any business carried on for gain or profit, or gains or profits and income derived from any source whatever.' they only apply to the foreign corporations, federal government "employees", and nationals. also, u criticize sublime for offering un-read information...did YOU read Larken Rose's research? i spent 5 hours one nite pouring over it and it quotes many court cases as well as plenty of revenue codes. even so, it is relatively obvious that i am not an "employee". and besides, in 1895, the supreme court ruled that income taxes are unconstitutional. i don't see the problem here. here are several links that might be relevant. http://www.civil-liberties.com/pages/taxationtale.htm http://www.irs.gov/newsroom/display/0,,i1%3D42&genericId%3D23099,00.html http://chansen.tzo.com/Subjects/Taxes/Articles/Christian/DrKentHovindsTaxLetter.htm and for politicalguru...u could at least spell my name right. as for going to jail... it won't happen. either i'll file the suit BEFORE i quit paying, or i'll deem it not worth my trouble and simply continue as though i was one with the ignorant masses. feel free to respond. i'd really like to lose this argument. :) |
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Subject:
Re: federal income taxes
From: richard-ga on 31 Aug 2002 20:07 PDT |
In general I consider it bad form to criticise a fellow-researcher's answer, but this is a special case. The Internet is chock-full of nonsense about the US tax law, and it is irresponsible for Google Answers to quote this material without giving it a proper critical reading. You asked whether a citizen of the United States of America legally obligated to pay federal income tax, specifically under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. By way of background, please recall what you learned in Middle School about how laws are adopted and enforced under the US system that separates powers among the legislative, judicial and executive branches. Congress passes laws (of which the Internal Revenue Code is one), the Executive Branch enforces laws (that's the Internal Revenue Service) and if you or I feel that a law is being enforced improperly or contrary to the US Constitution, we take our case to the federal courts, up to and including the US Supreme Court, so that the Judicial Branch can have the final say. So it is not you or I who decide how to interpret the words of the Internal Revenue Code. The proper reading of the Internal Revenue code as it applies to your question was long ago determined by the US Supreme Court. Here it is in the Court's own words: "Sec. 22[a] of the Revenue Act of 1934, 48 Stat. 680, 686, 26 U.S.C.A. Int.Rev.Acts, page 669, includes among 'gross income' all 'gains, profits, and income derived ... from professions, vocations, trades, businesses, commerce, or sales, or dealings in property, whether real or personal, growing out of the ownership or use of or interest in such property; also from interest, rent, dividends, securities, or the transaction of any business carried on for gain or profit, or gains or profits and income derived from any source whatever.' The broad sweep of this language indicates the purpose of Congress to use the full measure of its taxing power within those definable categories." Helvering v. Clifford, 309 U.S. 331 http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=309&invol=331 The answer to your question lies in the fact that the Internal Revenue Code, as adopted by Congress and interpreted by the federal courts, broadly defines the gross income of a U.S. citizen or resident (Code Section 61), and only narrowly defines the various exclusions, deductions and losses that the law allows. Income Tax Policy https://answers.google.com/answers/main?cmd=threadview&id=33316 Now there are plenty of websites that will explain why, according to their logic, the Internal Revenue Code is defective, the IRS is over-reaching, and so forth. What you want to do is see if these sites can link you to any federal court cases, preferably at the Circuit Court of Appeals or US Supreme Court level, that concur with their point of view. I think you will find that the Tax Protestor websites take the shape of a ring--each giving its unique reading to the Code and citing other protest sites, but not citing any of the federal court decisions that are the proper authority in this area. Here's a typical link into the Tax Protest Ring (easily found by searching Google for "Larken Rose"). Do you see how it goes round-and-round? Web Sites to Check Out http://www.givemeliberty.org/education.htm But don't take my word for the above...please use these pages as pointers to the various cases that tell what the tax law, as interpreted by the federal courts, really means: THE TAX PROTESTER FAQ http://evans-legal.com/dan/tpfaq.html THE TAX PROTESTOR MOVEMENT: Proof that P.T. Barnum Was Right http://www.taxprophet.com/hot/feb96.html Tax & Trust Scam Bulletin Board http://www.taxprophet.com/hot/Trustscam.htm Anti-IRS Theories a/k/a Tax Protestor Junk http://www.quatloos.com/taxscams/taxprot.htm I hope you find this helpful. Google Researcher richard-ga |
Subject:
Re: federal income taxes
From: politicalguru-ga on 01 Sep 2002 08:37 PDT |
Richard - Way to go, An excellent (and right) comment. Hiplo - if you need any referrence to these court decisions (which reject those claims), just ask. I would hate to see you in jail :-) |
Subject:
Re: federal income taxes
From: mara-ga on 05 Sep 2002 11:05 PDT |
The employee arguement is refuted thusly: ARGUMENT: "The income tax applies only to government employees." Like the argument about whether the United States includes the states of the United States, this argument depends on a misunderstanding of the word "includes." I.R.C. section 3401(c), which relates to withholding of income tax from wages, defines the word "employee" as follows: "For purposes of this chapter, the term 'employee' includes an officer, employee, or elected official of the United States, a State, or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, or any agency or instrumentality of any one or more of the foregoing. The term 'employee' also includes an officer of a corporation." I.R.C. section 3401(c). Notice the word "includes"? As defined by I.R.C. section 7701(c), the use of "includes" does not exclude anything otherwise within the meaning of "employee," so "employee" includes what you would normally think of as employees, as well as some things you might not ordinarily think of as employees, such as elected officials of state and local governments. What have the courts said about the claim that only government employees are subject to income tax? "Similarly, Latham's instruction which indicated that under 26 U.S.C. § 3401(c) the category of 'employee' does not include privately employed wage earners is a preposterous reading of the statute. It is obvious that within the context of both statutes the word 'includes' is a term of enlargement not of limitation, and the reference to certain entities or categories is not intended to exclude all others." United States v. Latham, 754 F.2d 747, 750 (7th Cir. 1985). "To the extent Sullivan argues that he received no 'wages' in 1983 because he was not an 'employee' within the meaning of 26 U.S.C. § 3401(c), that contention is meritless. Section 3401(c), which relates to income tax withholding, indicates that the definition of 'employee' includes government officers and employees, elected officials, and corporate officers. The statute does not purport to limit withholding to the persons listed therein." Sullivan v. United States, 788 F.2d 813, 815 (1st Cir. 1986). "Petitioner's assertion that he is not a person required to pay tax as he is not an officer, employee or elected official of the United States, a State, or any political subdivision thereof, or of a corporation, is wholly meritless." United States v. Rice, 659 F.2d 524, 528 (5th Cir. 1981). "[P]laintiff's claim that only public officials can be taxed is completely frivolous and without merit." McAffee v. United States, 84 AFTR2d ¶99-5536(N.D.Ga. 1999) (sanctions imposed in the amount of $500 for filing a frivolous claim). "The term 'person' under the Internal Revenue Code is not, as the Turners would have it, limited to a person employed by the federal government." United States v. Turner, 86 AFTR2d ¸2000-5290, No. Civ. 99-00817 SOM/FIY (U.S.D.C. Hi. 3/10/2000). In Pabon v. Commissioner, T.C. Memo 1994-476, the petitioner alleged, among other things, that he "is not an employee of the Federal or state governments, is not engaged in a revenue taxable activity of alcohol, tobacco or firearms and therefore not subject to any exise [sic] tax...." The court concluded that the petition "is nothing but tax protester rhetoric and legalistic gibberish...." |
Subject:
Re: federal income taxes
From: haplo127-ga on 05 Sep 2002 23:38 PDT |
ahhhh...now i see. thank u mara. :) so in that case, this would be an unconstitutional taxing system. did you have any information on the 1895 court decision i mentioned? |
Subject:
Re: federal income taxes
From: gyrus-ga on 15 Dec 2002 16:48 PST |
haplo. Thank you for asking this question. I frequently peruse google answers to find this question. I t always seems to ferret out employees of the IRS, tax attorneys, (that we desperately need to defend laws that dont exist) and CPAs (whose #s would diminish if the current, unconstitutional tax code were eradicated). The only other category left is sheeple that still believe the Federal Reserve belongs to we the people and it is their patriotic duty to feed it. I would guess that most continue due the media being complicit with the Feds and scaring them into submission with all of the stories involving tax cheats, especially around April 15th. The problem that exists is interpretation. It appears there are no problems with the tax laws that have been legislated except for the intentional complicated nature in which they are written (define is). Thanks ex-pres. This is done so when the lawyers that write the laws while they are in congress can use the loosely written words any way that suits their current judicial needs, after they are ousted from office. By the way, does anyone else see a conflict of interest? Judges compensated with federally collected tax dollars interpreting the IRS code. Reminds me of the old saying the fox watching the hen house. I have read countless pages of arguments on the subject and there is one question that never gets answered. And there are rewards posted all over the internet for this. Show me the specific law that makes most citizens of the United States liable for the federal income tax? I assume (I hate using that word) since no one has claimed these monies, the law hasnt been found yet. I know Im looking cause I could use the loot. : ) |
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