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Subject:
California Law - 0% Tolerance for Goods with a specification
Category: Business and Money Asked by: ocdan7-ga List Price: $10.00 |
Posted:
21 Mar 2006 14:31 PST
Expires: 20 Apr 2006 15:31 PDT Question ID: 710216 |
One source said that a 1940's law specified something to this effect: If you state a specification for your "goods", it must not deviate from this amount. Therefore a 0% tolerance for quality of goods. Real World example: 2nd installment of carpet was over 7% different (inferior) than previous. "Industry Standards" (i.e., Not CA law) said 7%. Seeking the CA law to support 0% tolerance. Thanks!!! |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: California Law - 0% Tolerance for Goods with a specification
From: joe916-ga on 22 Mar 2006 14:52 PST |
I think the below sites will help a lot. look unde "MISREPRESENTATION" CHECKLIST OF SIGNIFICANT CALIFORNIA AND FEDERAL CONSUMER LAWS http://www.dca.ca.gov/legal/m-1.htmlor or CIVIL CODE SECTION 1770 http://www.leginfo.ca.gov/cgi-bin/displaycode?section=civ&group=01001-02000&file=1770 1770. (a) The following unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices undertaken by any person in a transaction intended to result or which results in the sale or lease of goods or services to any consumer are unlawful: ... (7) Representing that goods or services are of a particular standard, quality, or grade, or that goods are of a particular style or model, if they are of another. |
Subject:
Re: California Law - 0% Tolerance for Goods with a specification
From: ocdan7-ga on 22 Mar 2006 17:12 PST |
Thanks joe916-ga for the comment. I'm really looking for a CA law or reference with a #% that would make for a stonger argument. Thanks and please let me know if you know find such a reference! |
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