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Q: California Law - 0% Tolerance for Goods with a specification ( No Answer,   2 Comments )
Question  
Subject: California Law - 0% Tolerance for Goods with a specification
Category: Business and Money
Asked by: ocdan7-ga
List Price: $10.00
Posted: 21 Mar 2006 14:31 PST
Expires: 20 Apr 2006 15:31 PDT
Question ID: 710216
One source said that a 1940's law specified something to this effect: 
If you state a specification for your "goods", it must not deviate
from this amount. Therefore a 0% tolerance for quality of goods.
Real World example:  2nd installment of carpet was over 7% different
(inferior) than previous. "Industry Standards" (i.e., Not CA law) said
7%.
Seeking the CA law to support 0% tolerance.
Thanks!!!
Answer  
There is no answer at this time.

Comments  
Subject: Re: California Law - 0% Tolerance for Goods with a specification
From: joe916-ga on 22 Mar 2006 14:52 PST
 
I think the below sites will help a lot.
look unde "MISREPRESENTATION" 
CHECKLIST OF SIGNIFICANT CALIFORNIA AND FEDERAL CONSUMER LAWS
http://www.dca.ca.gov/legal/m-1.htmlor 

or

CIVIL CODE SECTION 1770 
http://www.leginfo.ca.gov/cgi-bin/displaycode?section=civ&group=01001-02000&file=1770

1770.  (a) The following unfair methods of competition and unfair or
deceptive acts or practices undertaken by any person in a
transaction intended to result or which results in the sale or lease
of goods or services to any consumer are unlawful:
...
  (7) Representing that goods or services are of a particular
standard, quality, or grade, or that goods are of a particular style
or model, if they are of another.
Subject: Re: California Law - 0% Tolerance for Goods with a specification
From: ocdan7-ga on 22 Mar 2006 17:12 PST
 
Thanks joe916-ga for the comment.  I'm really looking for a CA law or
reference with a #% that would make for a stonger argument. Thanks and
please let me know if you know find such a reference!

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