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Subject:
Law
Category: Relationships and Society Asked by: cedluwat-ga List Price: $50.00 |
Posted:
07 Apr 2006 06:53 PDT
Expires: 07 May 2006 06:53 PDT Question ID: 716453 |
Is it unconstitutional for bodies other than courts of law to exercise judicial functions? | |
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There is no answer at this time. |
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Subject:
Re: Law
From: irlandes-ga on 07 Apr 2006 14:49 PDT |
>but despite the powers that ALL these agencies ?seem? to have, all these entities? decisions are ultimately subject to Judicial review, appeal or adjudication in a court of law. Doing legal research in Iowa and nearby states (N.W. 2nd Reporter) in the 80's, I found consistently that attempts to obtain judicial review of rulings of administrative courts (judicial functions of government agencies, such as State Department of Transportation, etc) were rebuffed with the statement that no such rulings would be overturned by regular (constitutional) courts, unless the result "shocked the judicial conscience," whatever on earth that means. So, I find it a false statement that such administrative courts are constitutional because they are subject to judicial review by regular courts. It just is not true. There may or may not be real protection against wild and extreme rulings, but no routine review at all. Right or wrong the admin court rulings are not reviewed. |
Subject:
Re: Law
From: tutuzdad-ga on 07 Apr 2006 16:07 PDT |
The issue is moot because the customer has now said he/she is interested in UK situations. As for my research however, I never indicated that the judicial review was "automatic" merely that it is - as is just about everything else in this country - "subject to" being reviewed by a court. Anyone can sue anyone in the US for anyTHING and you can appeal virtually all decisions to a higher judicial authority. Decision appeals being rejected locally in Iowa does not, a constitutional precedent or Federal law, make. tutuzdad-ga |
Subject:
Re: Law
From: irlandes-ga on 08 Apr 2006 17:21 PDT |
You may be right, but I did say the states in N.W. 2nd Reporter, not just Iowa. Just pointing out this error. I would be curious if you know of any state where constitional courts do hear admin cases anew? |
Subject:
Re: Law
From: weisstho-ga on 09 Apr 2006 09:21 PDT |
And, particularly in a civil context, the U.S. Constitution only refers to United States courts dealing with those issues which the Constitution sets forth jurisdiction (the United States courts are courts of "limited jurisdiction" which means that they can only hear those "cases and controversies" for which either the Constitution or statutes allow them to hear.) For example, a federal court cannot hear a divorce case. The various state constitutions, therefore, are controlling in how cases and controversies are heard. Although many states are virtually identical in their judicial structures, some are markedly different. State statute, of course, would set forth what administrative agencies are permitted to hear, and whether that agency has exclusive jurisdiction requiring the controversy to be heard there, and only there, first; or whether the agency jurisdiction is concurrent with the courts, permitted one to file first with the agency or with a court. Appellate procedures would also be set forth in the statute. As a practicing lawyer, I am fond of telling clients that the law is easy - anybody can read the law and understand it - it is the court rules that will cause you to lose the case - not the law. |
Subject:
Re: Law
From: xcorefosho-ga on 11 Apr 2006 21:15 PDT |
It is not unconstitutional. If it were, all the religious courts that deal with divorce and other personal matters would not be around. I know at least that the Roman Catholicism has courts and so does Judaism in the United States. They mostly deal with divorce and other family matters. Even though these rulings are not viewed by the US government, they are in fact courts and are legal rulings within the religion and if they are not followed you are excommunicated. |
Subject:
Re: Law
From: ianchch-ga on 16 May 2006 16:51 PDT |
Essentially, in the UK public bodies are accepted to be making judicial decisions. The system of government is generally considered to be split into three facets: the legislature, executive and judiciary. This is known as 'separation of powers'. The divide here is not clear and overlap does occur though (take the Queen, or Attorney-General, for instance). In a simplified conception, the legislature (usually Parliament) make the law. The executive (e.g. the government, police, NHS, armed forces) apply the law (e.g. if a law says that all citizens should get free health care - the NHS do so, if a law states that murder is illegal - the police deal with this). The judicial element carries out judicial functions - applying the law to specific instances of fact to see if there has been an illegality. The paradigm example of this is quite clearly the courts. The courts are seen by many as a pure 'judicial' body, making only judicial decisions. This too could be said of a tribunal e.g. immigration appeals tribunal, employment tribunal. In other areas the divide is more blurred. A planning officer would generally be seen as part of the executive (those who execute the 'law' prescribed by the the legislature [commonly Parliament]), but in hearing planning decisions also makes a judicial determination e.g. does the law allow for X Co. to build a supermarket on site Y. Ministers may also make such determination e.g. how long does prisoner X have to spend in jail (as occured notably in the Bulger case), should immigrant Y be deported. The Minister for the Home Office was notably acting judicially in interning terrorist suspects in Belmarsh prison. There is nothing wrong with this in the eyes of most constitutional theorists e.g. Raz, Wade. However, the European Convention of Human Rights (enacted in English law by the Human Rights Act 1998) prescribed under Article 6 that all citizens have a right to fair trail and decisions again them being fair. Hence, if aq minister is deciding whether you can build your supermarket 'there' he may be biased - he may have had a hand in making the law that he purports to apply. The solution that our courts have come to is that this is ok, as long as the courts can invigilate, if and when the need arises. This occurs through the process of Judicial Review. This does not mean that whenever the courts disagree with a decision made by another body, they can intervene. A private citizen must first bring procedings for judicial review. Then the court can only overturn the decision if it is 'illegal', 'unreasonable' or 'irrational'. These are NOT easy standards to meet. Most applicants leave court disappointed. |
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