In the 1950's or early 1960's, a change took place that allowed a
wife's income to be considered when a couple applied for a mortgage
(home) loan.  Prior to that, only the husband's income was considered.
1.) Did that change come about because of a precedence set by large
mortgage companies - or was it changed by legislative action? I'm 57
years old, and I was a young child, living in Colorado, when my
parents were talking about this change.  It affected my family, and
I'm interested in what was the source of the change. 2.) Was that
change specific to the state, or was it nation-wide?  Thank you.