I am aware that the CAN-SPAM law does not allow sending emails to
an individual who has not opted-in to receive emails from the sender.
Nevertheless, I was wondering if there is any exception to the rule.
An example might be a one-time email to a customer, or a one-time invitation
to opt-in, or maybe an email only once a year and so on.

My question therefore is: Under what circumstances is it permissible
to send an email to an individual (customer or prospect and the
difference if there is) even though the individual has not opted-in
and requested to receive emails.

---

Request for Question Clarification by keystroke-ga on 18 Aug 2006 11:13 PDT

I know that if you have done business with an individual in the past
or they have requested further information relating to a purchase of a
product or service you may contact. How long this time frame extends
for however I am not 100% sure.

--Keystroke-ga

see:

http://www.spamlaws.com/federal/108s877.shtml