brkyrhrt,
Most of my knowledge of probability and statistics comes from the
notes of one professor who taught me most of what I know at this
level. Luckily he still has his course notes available online. I'm
going to give an answer to part (2) of your question as a combination
of my own knowledge and the formal proof given in his notes. Then
again, given that my knowledge is a subset of these notes, I should
probably give Prof. Weber full credit for this answer :)
Prof Weber's Statistics course homepage at Cambridge University :
http://www.statslab.cam.ac.uk/~rrw1/stats/index00.html
The lecture notes corresponding to your question (in postscript
format) :
http://www.statslab.cam.ac.uk/~rrw1/stats/S10.ps
A pdf version of those notes (this link will probably expire - I
created it by uploading the ps file to www.ps2pdf.com) :
http://www.ps2pdf.com/tgetfile/S10.pdf?key=1036087512&name=S10.pdf
Here is a paraphrase of Lemma 10.4 (which answers part 2) :
Let X1, ..., Xn be IID N(mu, sig^2)
Define Xbar = sum(Xi)/n
Define Sxx = sum((Xi - Xbar)^2)
Then (there are 6 parts, I will prove each part as we go along) :
i) Xbar ~ N(mu, sig^2/n) and n(Xbar - mu)^2 ~ sig^2 * ChiSq(1)
Proof:
The sum of n IID normal variables has mean n*mu and variance n*sig^2.
Hence sum(Xi) ~ N(n*mu, n*sig^2).
When X ~ N(mu, sig^2), aX ~ N(a*mu, a^2 * sig^2). So (1/n)sum(Xi) ~
N(n*mu/n, n*sig^2/(n^2) ~ N(mu, sig^2/n)
the distribution of n(Xbar - mu)^2 follows from the definition of
ChiSq(1) as the square of a N(0,1) variable.
ii) Xi - mu ~ N(0, sig^2), so sum((Xi - mu)^2) ~ sig^2 * ChiSq(n)
Proof:
Follows directly from the definition of ChiSq(n) = sum of n
independent ChiSq(1)s.
iii) sum((Xi - mu)^2) = Sxx + n(Xbar - mu)^2
Proof:
sum((Xi - mu)^2) = sum(Xi^2 - 2*mu*Xi + mu^2)
= sum(Xi^2 - 2*Xi*Xbar + Xbar^2 + 2*Xi*Xbar - Xbar^2 - 2*mu*Xi + mu^2)
= sum((Xi - Xbar)^2) + sum(2*Xi*Xbar - Xbar^2 - 2*mu*Xi + mu^2)
= sum((Xi - Xbar)^2) + 2*sum(Xi)*Xbar - n*Xbar^2 - 2*mu*Sum(Xi) +
n*mu^2
= sum((Xi - Xbar)^2) + 2*n*Xbar^2 - n*Xbar^2 - 2*mu*n*xbar + n*mu^2
= sum((Xi - Xbar)^2) + n*(Xbar - mu)^2
iv) Not relevant for what you wanted
v) Xbar and Sxx are independent
Proof:
Let Y = A(X - mu*1) be a linear transformation of X
(1 here is a n-vector of ones)
Define A so that Y1 = sqrt(n)*(Xbar - mu) (ie. the first row of A is
(1/sqrt(n),... , 1/sqrt(n))) and so that the remaining rows of A are
orthogonal to the first row (This is possible if A is n by n)
[i'm going to use the notation ^t to mean transpose]
A orthogonal means that A^tA = I
Now sum(Yi) = Y^tY = (X - mu*1)^t A^tA (X - mu*1) = sum((Xi - mu)^2)
Then sum(Y2^2, ..., Yn^2) = sum((Xi - mu)^2) - Y1^2
= sum((Xi - mu)^2) - n(Xbar - mu)^2
= Sxx (by part iii)
but sqrt(n)*cov(Sxx, Xbar) = cov(sum(Y2^2, ..., Yn^2), Y1^2) = 0 as Y1
and Y2, ..., Yn are independent by the orthogonality of A.
vi) Sxx ~ sig^2ChiSq(n-1)
Proof:
Yi ~ N(0,sig^2)
So Sxx = sum(Y2^2, ..., Yn^2) = sum of n-1 squared normal variables.
SO FINALLY :
sqrt(n) * (Xbar - mu)/sig ~ N(0,1)
sqrt(Sxx / sig^2(n-1)) ~ ChiSq(n-1)
So :
sqrt(n) * (Xbar - mu) N(0,1)
--------------------- ~ ---------- = t(n-1)
sqrt(Sxx / (n-1)) Chisq(n-1)
This is assuming that you treat the definition of a t-distribution
with n degrees of freedom to be the ratio of an independent Normal
distribution and the squareroot of a ChiSq(n) distribution scaled by
1/n).
Note that this definition of a t-distribution helps you with part (1)
of your question, since you can ask what happens to the distribution
of :
sqrt(Chisq(n)/n) as n goes to infinity.
Because a Chisq(n) distribution has a mean of n and variance of 2n the
distribution of Chisq(n)/n -> 1. It's been a while since I've done
that formally - so I'm not going to dare write something that is
mathematically weak.
Hope that helps.
Regards
calebu2-ga
Information from Mathworld on the t-distribution
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Studentst-Distribution.html
Information from Mathworld on the Chi-squared distribution
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Chi-SquaredDistribution.html |