Please note that I am not licensed to practice law in the United
Kingdom. I am a researcher for Google Answers, so all I can do is
give the results of my research, not provide expert legal commentary.
I will do the best I can, as a layperson, to set forth the information
you seek. You should consult with someone licensed to practice law in
the UK for a professional opinion on these cases.
I happened to know about a good legal database for UK cases, the
British and Irish Legal Information Institute (BAILII), at
http://www.bailii.org/ . I searched for various combinations of these
terms on BAILII:
unconscious
unconsciously
subconscious
subconsciously
racism
racist
racial
race
prejudice
discrimination
bias
One case kept coming up, in some form or another: Swiggs and Others v.
Nagarajan [1999] UKHL 36; [2000] 1 AC 501; [1999] 4 All ER 65; [1999]
3 WLR 425 (15th July, 1999).
http://www.bailii.org/cgi-bin/markup.cgi?doc=/uk/cases/UKHL/1999/36.html
[Related decisions are reported at
http://www.bailii.org/cgi-bin/markup.cgi?doc=/ew/cases/EWCA/Civ/1997/2671.html
and http://www.bailii.org/cgi-bin/markup.cgi?doc=/ew/cases/EWCA/Civ/1997/2671.html
. I found these by searching for nagarajan on BAILII. The search
also shows both decisions in Khan.]
The other case I found, which cites the House of Lords decision in
Nagarajan, is Chief Constable of West Yorkshire Police and ORS v.
Raham Noor Khan [2000] EWCA Civ 53 (24th February, 2000):
http://www.bailii.org/cgi-bin/markup.cgi?doc=/uk/cases/UKHL/1999/36.html
I have previously described the basic scenario of each case. More
specifically, in Nagarajan, there are two decisions written by members
of the majority. The decision of Lord Nichols of Birkenhead contains
a three-paragraph discussion starting with: "I turn to the question of
subconscious motivation." Among other things, Lord Nichols of
Birkenhead concludes that "members of an employment tribunal may
decide that the proper inference to be drawn from the evidence is
that, whether the employer realised it at the time or not, race was
the reason why he acted as he did." Lord Steyn also considers this
issue under the heading "The section 2(1) point", and concludes that
"conscious motivation is not required for direct discrimination" under
section 1(1)(a) or 2(1) of the Race Relations Act 1976
In Khan, the Supreme Court of Judicature, Court of Appeal (Civil
Division) cites and agrees with Nagarajan. However, the decision was
reversed by the House of Lords, not apparently because of a
disagreement with the principles of Nagarajan, but because the
unfavorable treatment did not occur because of activity protected by
the Race Relations Act of 1976. However, you may want to read this
case carefully for its interpretation of Nagarajan, just to check on
this.
Chief Constable of West Yorkshire Police v. Khan [2001] UKHL 48 (11th
October, 2001)
http://www.bailii.org/cgi-bin/markup.cgi?doc=/uk/cases/UKHL/2001/48.html
I hope that this information is helpful to you.
- justaskscott-ga |
Clarification of Answer by
justaskscott-ga
on
04 Nov 2002 15:27 PST
First of all, I apologize; I accidentally repeated the link to the
Nagarajan case, rather than post a link to the Khan case. The correct
link is http://www.bailii.org/cgi-bin/markup.cgi?doc=/ew/cases/EWCA/Civ/2000/53.html
.
I think that in Nagarajan, Lord Nichols of Birkenhead -- especially in
the three paragraphs I mention -- does hold that racism (treating
someone less favorably because of race) can be unconscious. He
emphasizes that cases of "unrecognised prejudice" are covered by this
Act. Likewise, Lord Steyn, while making a more-technical statutory
argument, comes to a similar conclusion: proof of "conscious
motivation" is not necessary to show racial discrimination.
Indeed, as Khan (whose citation I have now correctly provided),
explains with respect to Nagarajan:
"The House of Lords held, as appears from the headnote of that case,
that a finding of direct discrimination on racial grounds under s.1(a)
of the RRA 1976 did not require that the discriminator was consciously
motivated in treating the complainant less favourably. It was
sufficient if it could properly be inferred from the evidence that,
regardless of the discriminator's motive or intention, a significant
cause of his decision to treat that complainant less favourably was
that person's race."
(Paragraph 22 of Lord Woolf's opinion.)
Hopefully this explanation will clarify my answer. I can provide
further clarification, if you would like. (Perhaps we are in the
situation that judges often face, where one judge sees a case one way,
and one sees it the other way. Hopefully, I have persuaded you to see
these cases my way. If not, perhaps you can show the decisions to a
British legal expert (which I am not) and see what he or she thinks.)
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