How has rationalism/rationality changed from Aristotle to the
Utilitarians, is that good/bad?  Should we change the way that we look
at this issue?

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Request for Question Clarification by shananigans-ga on 03 Nov 2002 21:51 PST

Hi redjay,

Could you please be a bit more specific with your question - what do
you *mean* by how has 'rationalism/rationality' changed? In what
respect? Do you mean has logic changed? Has rationalisation of actions
changed? The rational evaluation of whether hedonistic practices are
acceptable?

Also, it is very difficult to answer whether something like a change
in philosophical viewpoint is good or bad - especially if you believe
that there exists no objective 'good' or 'bad' (noncognitivism).

Moreover, do you want the answer to deal only with utilitarianism and
Aristotle, or with specific stages in between - Kant, Sartre, Rawls,
for example?

I take it that your request is based on an essay question.
Unfortunately we cannot write essays for you, but if you could give us
the entire question as it is worded on the sheet, a researcher can at
least direct you to some relevant resources.

Sorry to ask so many questions!
shananigans-ga

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Clarification of Question by redjay-ga on 03 Nov 2002 22:48 PST

I am looking for information on how ,since Aristotle's time, the term
'rationality' has seemed to connote a different view than that was
initially forwarded.  Further, I am curious how the term has changed
over time--seemingly going astray with the Utilitarian movement.  Can
Aristotle's view of rationality have actually become/morphed into a
belief system that does a disservice to conscious, quantifiable
calculations with the Utilitarian?  John Stewart Mills' critique of
Utilitarianism may have resulting in 'rationality' being viewed
similarly by 'everyone' since that time.

Some of the key figures that I am looking at so far are: Bentham,
Mills, Weber, Nietzsche, William James.

I, in no manner, am looking to have an essay written for me.

Direction is needed , though.