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Q: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages ( Answered 4 out of 5 stars,   6 Comments )
Question  
Subject: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
Category: Reference, Education and News > Teaching and Research
Asked by: fulks-ga
List Price: $50.00
Posted: 12 Sep 2003 10:25 PDT
Expires: 12 Oct 2003 10:25 PDT
Question ID: 255089
There is no gender nonspecific third person singular pronoun in
English (except possibly for 'one'), as well as other pronouns and
nouns.  The third person singular pronouns in English are: 'he, she,
it' in the nomnative, 'him, her, it' in the objective, and 'his, her,
its' in the possessive.  'It' has no gender, what is missing are
pronouns meaning 'he and she' or he or she', for example.  All modern
Latin-based romance and germanic languages have the same
characteristic, as well as Latin itself I think.

I am concerned with the oral and written langauges from which the old
and new testaments for the Christian Holy Bible were first recorded,
and whether modern translations can possibly have the intended genders
right.

This inquiry is my first cursory step.  What are the first person
singular personal pronouns in such langauges in the nomnative,
objective (accusative), and possessive cases, and what is their
English translation--especially with regard to gender?  I presume that
ancient Greek and Semitic languages are the primary sources.  Perhaps
specific answers for modern Greek and Hebrew would be an adequate
first step,
along with Latin, and along with a listing of the most relavent
ancient
languages and an idea of how difficult it would be to find and
translate those pronouns.

Request for Question Clarification by kriswrite-ga on 12 Sep 2003 10:32 PDT
Hello fulks~

Just to make sure I am understanding you correctly, is this what
you're looking for?

* What are the first person singular (personal)pronouns in Aramic,
Greek, and Hebrew (the languages the Bible was originally written in)?
* And what are their English translations?

I'm a little confused by the request for "most relant ancient
languages." Are you only wanting to consider the lanugagues the Bible
was originally written in? Or do you also want information on other
ancient languages?

I'm also confused by the request for Latin. Are you perhaps seeking to
verify an old Latin translation? If so, which one?

Thank you,
Kriswrite

Request for Question Clarification by hlabadie-ga on 27 Sep 2003 14:39 PDT
I don't think that any meaningful answer can be given to the question
as it is currently written. A pronoun is chosen to agree in gender
with the noun it replaces. The noun has both a natural and a
grammatical gender, and the natural gender, the sex, of the noun can
be different than the grammatical gender. In Greek, things are
complicated by the fact that some nouns have common genders, and the
gender of a particular noun will be indicated by the article prefixed
('o, masculine -- 'e:, feminine -- to, neuter); and a noun that can
include both sexes but has one grammatical gender is called epicene.
Furthermore, in many instances, the pronoun is only implied by the
context and the conjugation of the verb, and must be supplied by the
translator.

For instance, theos, can be translated either as god or goddess,
depending upon the article that is used. If one composed a sentence
using the masculine 'o theos, and then followed that by another
sentence in which the third person verb is used without any pronoun,
the translator must supply "he", a word that would be understood by
the original author's readers from the verb and the context.



"There is no gender nonspecific third person singular pronoun in 
English (except possibly for 'one'), as well as other pronouns and 
nouns.  The third person singular pronouns in English are: 'he, she, 
it' in the nomnative, 'him, her, it' in the objective, and 'his, her,
its' in the possessive.  'It' has no gender, what is missing are 
pronouns meaning 'he and she' or he or she', for example.  All modern
Latin-based romance and germanic languages have the same 
characteristic, as well as Latin itself I think."
 


In point of fact, although it can sound incorrect, the English pronoun
"they, them, their" is frequently used in cases where a singular
person of either gender is possible. The Oxford English Dictionary
gives examples dating back to the early 16th Century.


Thus, can you rephrase your question?

hlabadie-ga
Answer  
Subject: Re: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
Answered By: politicalguru-ga on 01 Oct 2003 05:35 PDT
Rated:4 out of 5 stars
 
Dear Fulks, 

The Bible was originally written in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek.
According to one site, the Bible was translated to more than 1,300
different languages, one of which is English. This caused several
translation challenges, and those who are interested in Biblical
philology might do best, if they read the Bible in the original
languages, and not only in English, in order to compare versions.

Moreover, “in the English language there are many translations and
renderings with different words and phrases, which imply that one
translation differs from the other. The many translations in the same
language are justified in that new renderings are different from the
previous ones. The fact that there are many translations in the same
language indicates that the first translation is not understood after
many centuries. For instance, the first translation into the English
language from the original New Testament Greek and Old Testament
Hebrew by John Wycliffe in the fifteenth century is incomprehensible
to the, reader today in English.” (Source: Rev. George Mastrantonis,
“THE BIBLE: ITS ORIGINAL LANGUAGES AND ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS” _ Greek
Orthodox Archdiocese of America_ Web site, <
http://www.goarch.org/en/ourfaith/articles/article7068.asp>).

The issue of the pronouns is only one example, where one encounters
great difficulties in translating from Greek or Hebrew into English,
since both these languages have feminine and masculine nouns (from
which only reminiscent is left in the English language, for example
the reference to a ship as feminine), and a reference to “he” in a
text could be to a human being, but also to an object, whose gender is
masculine.

I do not know if translators have always managed to be true to the
gender in *all* translations and also would not be as pretentious as
to claim to know all translations of the Bible, in all sections. This
is a highly contested area, and there are a lot of discussions on the
appropriate translations of pronouns – fro example, you could see a
site, all dedicated to objection to the “Today's New International
Version” of the Bible, claiming that its translation regarding gender
distorts the original (www.no-tniv.com).

A very interesting reference to the issue of gender pronouns
translation and modern interpretations – especially in reference to
God - is available from Colin B. Donovan, STL, at the Eternal Word
Television Network site (“Bible Versions and Commentaries“
<http://www.ewtn.com/expert/answers/bible_versions.htm#inclusive>).
You could also see the judgment made by the translators of the
International Standard Version,  regarding gender in various contested
sections http://www.searchgodsword.org/info/copyright/bible/isv.html>


Hebrew
======

As mentioned before, gender for third and second person exist in
Hebrew (all references are both to modern and to Biblical/ancient
Hebrew, unless noted otherwise). In the case of first person, gender
does not exist in the pronoun itself :

Nominative –  &#1497;&#1504;&#1488; / &#1488;&#1504;&#1497; –
Pronounced “Ani” – English: “I”  - Example: “R’u atah, ki ani, ani hu
v’ein Elohim imadi [See, then, now, that I, I am He; there is no god
beside Me]” (Deuteronomy 32:39).

Objective - Accusative – The personal pronouns are used in correlation
with the relevant preposition. The preposition is the one that is
being changed. For example:
“AL” means “on” , “Alay” means “on me”
“EL” means “to”, “Elay” means “to me” 
The accusative preposition is “et”  - and in first person singular it
is &#1488;&#1493;&#1514;&#1497; / &#1497;&#1514;&#1493;&#1488; –
Pronounced: “Oti” – English: “Me” – Example” wattehi  yir’atam ’oti
mitswat ’anashim melummedim.” [“their fear of me”] Isaiah 29:13 . The
transitive form, is “elay” (to me). Moreover, in the case of
prepositions, not all prepositions translate the same from one
language to another. In this case, we had a preposition in Hebrew that
does not translate into a certain word in English (Compare: “I read
the book” and “Ani kore/t **et** hasefer”), or translates to another
preposition (“Yir’atam oti” and “Their fear of me”).

Possesive - Genitive - &#1513;&#1500;&#1497; &#1500;&#1497; –
Pronounced “Sheli” and “li”. English: Mine, My . Example: "Ani L'Dodi
V'Dodi Li" [ I am my beloved's and my beloved is mine] (Song of
Songs);

In the first person, gender is indicated by the usage of verbs. In
present term, there is a difference in declination between males and
females. In general, in Hebrew, the declination is an additive of X-et
or X-a at the end of the verb.

Biblical Hebrew course could be found here
http://www.biblicalhebrew.com/
And yet another http://www.bible101.org/hebrew/home.html 


Aramaic
=======

Aramaic is another Semitic language, just like Hebrew, and this is
actually the language spoken by Jesus and his contemporaries. However,
most of the Bible is not written in Aramaic, only small parts of it,
such as the book of Daniel/Vulgate. The Aramaic grammar is similar to
the Hebrew one, as the two are related, Semitic languages. Both in
Hebrew and in Aramaic, there is no neutral gender – only feminine and
masculine “inflection in most tenses marks gender of the subject and
(under certain circumstances) object in the singular along with person
and number.” (Source: “LINGUIST List 4.1066: Gender-neutral Pronouns:
The sequel” www.linguistlist.org/issues/4/4-1066.html).
First person, nominative, in Aramaic, is “ana” (“I”). 

The prepositional objective form of first person in Aramaic is “yati”.
Like in the Hebrew case, this word has no specific translation because
of the difference in prepositions and grammar between English and
Semitic languages. “Yati” could mean the same as “oti”.

The possessive is expressed in several ways. The first, is a change of
a noun, to express its relation to the subject. Jesus said, for
example “Elee” which means “My God”, while “God” means “el” (both in
Aramaic and Hebrew). The other, to express possessive relation, is
construct relationship, in which, for example, “the son of God” is
expressed as “Bar Elohim”. A third, in which the first person is
expressed through a change in a preposition is “Sheli”, just as in
Hebrew.


Greek
=====
 
Again, the reference here is mainly to Koine, the Biblical Greek, but
references to other types of Greek are mentioned. In Greek, each
object has a gender – whether it is masculine, feminine, or neuter.
Objects are referred to as “he”, “it” or “she” in the sentence, when
it is clear that the indication is to that particular object. This
might create a problem in translation, since in English, these objects
are usually translated into “it” and in any case, an indication, based
on gender, does not exist.

In Greek, too, the first person is not distinguished by gender. Both
females and males will express them selves as:
Nominative:  “ego” (&#61541;&#61543;&#61559;&#61481;, a word that must
be familiar to you, meaning “I”.
Objective - Accusative : “eme”, “me” (&#949;&#956;`&#949;) – me
(please note, that in the Greek “me”, the “e” is as in “end” and not
as in the English “me”).
Genitive – Possessive: “emou” (&#949;&#956;&#959;&#965;) – my, mine
(“mou” is pronounces just like in the word “Emu”).
Dative: This form doesn’t exist in English, and represents “Of,
relating to, or being the grammatical case that marks the recipient of
action, that often indicates the indirect object of the verb, and that
can be used with prepositions or other function words corresponding in
meaning to English to and for.” (Dictionary.com
http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=dative&r=67). “emoi”
(&#949;&#956;&#959;&#953;) – for me, from me, to me (pronunciation:
“e” is as in “end”, “moi” as in “moisture”).

Recommended further reading could be 

Max Zerwick and Mary Grosvenor A Grammatical Analysis of the Greek New
Testament,. Rome: Biblical Institute Press, 1981.

A very good Website is “Little Greek”, http://www.ibiblio.org/koine/,
which teaches the basics of reading NT Greek.

Search God’s Word’s Greek Lexicon could also be of help:
http://www.searchgodsword.org/lex/grk/

The University of Chicago Library offers S. C. WOODHOUSE’s
“English-Greek Dictionary - A Vocabulary of the Attic Language
(London: Routledge & Sons Ltd., 1910) online at
http://www.lib.uchicago.edu/efts/Woodhouse/

The University of Texas, Austin, offers online NT Greek lessons: New
Testament Greek Online
http://www.utexas.edu/cola/depts/lrc/eieol/ntgol-0-X.html


Other Ancient Languages of the Bible
====================================

The Bible itself was not originally written in any other languages,
but I shall refer to several other ancient languages that might be of
interest to you:

Latin first person pronouns are pretty similar to those in Greek:
Latin Language Resources: Inflected Latin: Pronouns
http://www.forumromanum.org/latin/pronouns.html
 
Coptic : http://directory.google.com/Top/Science/Social_Sciences/Language_and_Linguistics/Natural_Languages/Afro-Asiatic/Coptic/?il=1

Ge’ez (Classical Ethiopian):
http://www.ethiopianhistory.com/pre-aksum/geez.html

Recommended Reading: The Cambridge Encyclopedia of the World's Ancient
Languages Edited by Roger D. Woodard (Cambridge University Press).
 

Summary
=======

None of the three languages reviewed differentiates between genders in
first person pronouns. All three, though, differentiate in verb
declination between males and females. This is somewhat a logical
conclusion that comprehends to theories on development of systems of
meaning in linguistics, since it is safe to assume that the speaker in
first person form knows its own sex and needs not differentiate.


Other Resources
===============

Strong’s Hebrew/Greek Dictionary
http://www3.sk.sympatico.ca/jnc/Strongs/

Bible Gateway Concordance http://www.biblegateway.com/cgi-bin/bible 

Virtual Keyboard http://www.paralink.com/virk/ 


My Search Strategy
==================

Most of the work was not done through computer search but in the old
fashioned way – I spent a couple of days in the library. I also called
a friend of mine (international call! :-) to make sure regarding
Aramaic. However, there were several searches online. I searched for
terms such as {Grammatical form – accusative, genitive, etc.} “first
person” {name of language}.



I hope this answered your question. Don’t hesitate to contact me, if
you need any clarifications on the answer I gave you, before you rate
/ tip it.

Request for Answer Clarification by fulks-ga on 06 Oct 2003 07:11 PDT
Thank you so much for the effort, and the answer you already gave me
may be sufficient.  Now that you have considered my question in
general, I can offer this restatement that you can focus your response
on:

Did the authors and translators of the Judeo-Christain Bible
specifically know that God was male, or were they forced by the
limitations of their languages to choose between genders, and the
convention then, as now, required using the male pronoun when the
gender was not known?

Maybe you can simply review what you already researched to comment on
this point.  In addition, the foreign language characters did not
arrive at my computer in readible form.  Can you mail me a copy of
your research as you prepared it so I can see these characters/words. 
My address is 692 Stillwater Court; Osprey, FL 34229.

Thanks so much, Tom Fulks

Clarification of Answer by politicalguru-ga on 07 Oct 2003 03:08 PDT
Dear Mr. Fulks, 

Thank you, as this is a very interesting question. On face value, it
seems that the answer is pretty "simple". The references to God are in
a singular masculine form. Moreover, the words that refer to God
themselves are YHWH, who *could* be translated as "He causes to be"
(this interpretation is controversial, but it does indicate a
singular-masculine reference); Adon ("Lord") and Elohim ("God") - all
singular and masculine, despite the fact that "Elohim" is -
theoretically - in a male plural form in Hebrew (the -im suffix), and
I'll refer to that in the next paragraph.

Nevertheless, it is important to note, that unlike English and Greek,
Biblical Hebrew doesn't has a neutrum, an "it". Although it is beyond
me to know the original intentions of the writers, the reference to
God in a masculine form does not necessarily imply a
gender-preference, a masculine-male form as opposed to a feminine
form. According to Jewish theology, in any case, God is above the
notion of gender. The singular form - mentioned before in reference to
"Elohim" is more significant, as it stands in contrast to the
polytheistic beliefs in the region at that time.

In that aspect, I am not sure that reference to Ugarit (as made by a
commentator to this research), or to many other belief systems that
dominated the region, is entirely in place. It is true (and important
in that), that the Israelites interacted with other cultures in the
region and through that, with their religions and legal codex.
However, the case of a god who is married, as well as cases of
goddesses in other belief systems stands in total contrast to the
known intention of the formers of the Bible - to signify the
monotheistic belief of the Israelites/Jews, and its a-sexuality in
that.

You could read more interesting references to God's gender in
translation in :
S T Kimbrough, Jr., "Bible Translation and the Gender of God"
_Theology Today_
July 1998, Vol. 46, No. 2, pp. 195-203
<http://theologytoday.ptsem.edu/jul1989/v46-2-tabletalk.htm>.
[Theology Today's Homepage is
http://theologytoday.ptsem.edu/index.htm].

Finally, as we are not supposed to contact our clients directly, I
suggest you'll contact the editors, at
mailto:answers-editors@google.com - in order to arrange the transfer
of material.

Clarification of Answer by politicalguru-ga on 08 Oct 2003 01:00 PDT
Dear Tom, 

Thank you for the rating and the tip. I'll check among my friends who
have Internet sites, if one of them could upload the word version (as
RTF).

Clarification of Answer by politicalguru-ga on 09 Oct 2003 10:14 PDT
Dear Mr. Fulks, 

The RTF is available at
<http://www.mortalwombat.com/Files/Google%20Answer.rtf > and I am
indebt to one of our fine Researchers, who let me use her space,
through our connections in the Researcher's forum.

Please let me know when she can remove it (that is, when you
downloaded and saved it to your computer), since it is not my server
and space.

I will be pleased to assist you in any further research.
fulks-ga rated this answer:4 out of 5 stars and gave an additional tip of: $10.00
The researcher is surprisingly adept with ancient languages.  I was
willing to settle for an analysis of the modern versions of fewer
languages.  The reason I gave four stars instead of five is that I did
not get a black and white answer to my request for clarification,
possibly because there is no one answer.  I will have to look through
the ample references to see for myself.  I have requuested by email to
Google a printed response so I can see the arcane characters cited by
the researcher that email would not pass.

Comments  
Subject: Re: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
From: hlabadie-ga on 01 Oct 2003 15:37 PDT
 
Insofar as Greek is concerned, it is probably useful to look at the
entry for ego^ at Perseus.

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?layout.refembed=2&layout.refdoc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057&layout.refcit=entry%3Dau%29to%2Fs&doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3D%2330657&layout.reflookup=e%29gw%2F&layout.reflang=greek&layout.refwordcount=1

hlabadie-ga
Subject: Re: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
From: hlabadie-ga on 01 Oct 2003 22:56 PDT
 
A site devoted to the NT in Aramaic:

Welcome to the Aramaic New Testament
http://www.aramaicnt.org/


hlabadie-ga
Subject: Re: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
From: hlabadie-ga on 06 Oct 2003 11:57 PDT
 
Again, insofar as Greek is concerned, by the time that the compilation
of the Septuagint (ca. 280 BC), the gender of God had been established
in Judaism. The use of theos with the male article was required. Any
first person utterances ("I am that I am." "I am the Lord thy God.")
would follow that precedent.

How did they know that God was male? El (the Lord) of the Old
Testament had been firmly established in Canaan even before Judaism
and monotheism, as can be seen in the poetry of Ugarit. The Lord even
had a wife at that time.


*The Septuagint*
http://www.tyndale.cam.ac.uk/Scriptures/LXX.htm


Ugarit and the Bible
http://www.theology.edu/ugarbib.htm


hlabadie-ga
Subject: Re: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
From: hlabadie-ga on 07 Oct 2003 12:34 PDT
 
The translators who produced the Septuagint had no real option but to
use the masculine (both natural and grammatical gender), as the
Semitic originals required it.

The Semitic originals were really developments of an even earlier
linguistic and historical tradition, which fixed the gender as
masculine. This is demonstrated by the Ugaritic poetry, in which the
deity El is definitively masculine. The attributes of El were retained
as monotheism developed from this source.


Ugarit. The Columbia Encyclopedia, Sixth Edition.  2001.
http://www.bartleby.com/65/ug/Ugarit.html

"Among the more important discoveries at Ugarit are tablets from the
14th cent. B.C. Written in a cuneiform script, in a hitherto unknown
language, Ugaritic, they record the poetic works and myths of the
ancient Canaanites. They are written in an alphabet that is one of the
earliest known. Ugaritic has been identified as a Semitic language,
related to classical Hebrew, the language of the Old Testament, and
these tablets, the first authentic specimens of pagan Canaanite
literature, have been of great importance to students of language and
of the Bible. They offer evidence that the stories of the Old
Testament were based on written Canaanite documents as well as being
passed down orally."


hlabadie-ga
Subject: Re: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
From: hlabadie-ga on 07 Oct 2003 14:53 PDT
 
"Since Ugarit and Israel were both in Canaan, the cultic connections
between them are close...El is the head of the pantheon in Israel as
well as in Ugarit. And although biblical monotheism eventually
eliminated the worship of the Ugaritic-Canaanite gods, including Baal,
Anath, Asherah, Astarte, Yamm, Dagon, Shahar, Shemesh, Yareh, the
Hebrews were not only exposed to them through their pagan neighbors,
but as the Prophets tell us, frequently committed apostasy by
worshiping them down to the time of the Babylonian Exile
[...]
El, the head of the pantheon, is also called Thôr, "the Bull." El is
identified with the God of Israel, and it is interesting that in
Judges 6:25 he is mentioned as hash-Shôr, "the bull." El is the
principal figure in a religious drama (text 52) telling how the Great
God sired progeny from two human wives...It also shows that the
sabbatical cycle of the Old Testament is a religious and agricultural
institution taken over by the Hebrews from the older, native
population of Canaan...The Ugartic text rather suggests that Hosea and
Ezekiel were drawing on an old literary theme for poetic imagery much
as we draw on Greco-Roman mythology today.

In other Ugaritic texts concerning El, Asherah appears as his consort
who bore him "the seventy" gods. In popular religion, Asherah
persisted as El's consort in Judah until the purifying effect of the
Babylonian Exile. The account of Josiah's reform suggests that the
women dedicated to the cult of Asherah in the Jerusalem Temple (II
Kings 23:7) were considered to be in the service of Yahweh's wife.
Needless to say, Josiah put a stop to it." (pp. 19-21)

Gordon, Cyrus. H, Ugarit and Minoan Crete, W.W. Norton & Co., New
York, 1966 (Norton Library, 1967)

hlabadie-ga
Subject: Re: Gender of personal pronouns in ancient languages
From: hlabadie-ga on 08 Oct 2003 06:50 PDT
 
Here is a transliteration table for Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, Syriac,
and Coptic. It should simplify the rendering of the characters, if all
else fails.

http://rosetta.reltech.org/TC/TC-translit.html

hlabadie-ga

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